Hey friends
I believe the answer to this question would be A
Hope i helped
~Katie
Answer:
E. The corporate valuation model discounts free cash flows by the required return on equity.
True. One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
<h3>What is a predetermined overhead rate?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the allocation rate that is used in the determination of the estimated cost of the manufacturing overhead. It is used to show in either the order of the product or that of the job.
Hence based on this question we can say that it is true because the reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
Read more on overhead rate here: brainly.com/question/13312583
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Answer:
Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin / Sales
Product C90B CMR = ($23,490 - $7,047) / $23,490 = $16,443 / $23,490 = 0.7 = 70%
Product Y45E CMR = ($34,800 - $13,920) / $34,800 = $20,880 / $34,800 = 0.6 = 60%
The rule, <em>the Higher the contribution margin ratio, the lower the Break-Even point. </em>So, if sales mix shifts to product C90B, overall Break-even point <u>Decreases</u>.
Formula for calculating GDP;
GDP = Consumption + Investment + Government spending/Expenditure + Exports - Imports
Y = C + I + G + XM
Y = 10.53 + 6.32 + 3.40 + 1.28 - 2.26
GDP = 19.27 Trillion Rupees