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Lapatulllka [165]
3 years ago
14

Help! Asap ASAP!!!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Katen [24]3 years ago
7 0

I believe there is no way to solve it. You could just put it in friction form of

n2+10n+18

——————

n+5

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Help ASAP with 10&11 ASAP thanksss
kari74 [83]
10 is 287.9999 m squared and 11 is 2,435.125 yards squared
6 0
3 years ago
Consider functions of the form f(x)=a^x for various values of a. In particular, choose a sequence of values of a that converges
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

A. As "a"⇒e, the function f(x)=aˣ tends to be its derivative.

Step-by-step explanation:

A. To show the stretched relation between the fact that "a"⇒e and the derivatives of the function, let´s differentiate f(x) without a value for "a" (leaving it as a constant):

f(x)=a^{x}\\ f'(x)=a^xln(a)

The process will help us to understand what is happening, at first we rewrite the function:

f(x)=a^x\\ f(x)=e^{ln(a^x)}\\ f(x)=e^{xln(a)}\\

And then, we use the chain rule to differentiate:

f'(x)=e^{xln(a)}ln(a)\\ f'(x)=a^xln(a)

Notice the only difference between f(x) and its derivative is the new factor ln(a). But we know  that ln(e)=1, this tell us that as "a"⇒e, ln(a)⇒1 (because ln(x) is a continuous function in (0,∞) ) and as a consequence f'(x)⇒f(x).

In the graph that is attached it´s shown that the functions follows this inequality (the segmented lines are the derivatives):

if a<e<b, then aˣln(a) < aˣ < eˣ < bˣ < bˣln(b)  (and below we explain why this happen)

Considering that ln(a) is a growing function and ln(e)=1, we have:

if a<e<b, then ln(a)< 1 <ln(b)

if a<e, then aˣln(a)<aˣ

if e<b, then bˣ<bˣln(b)

And because eˣ is defined to be the same as its derivative, the cases above results in the following

if a<e<b, then aˣ < eˣ < bˣ (because this function is also a growing function as "a" and "b" gets closer to e)

if a<e, then aˣln(a)<aˣ<eˣ ( f'(x)<f(x) )

if e<b, then eˣ<bˣ<bˣln(b) ( f(x)<f'(x) )

but as "a"⇒e, the difference between f(x) and f'(x) begin to decrease until it gets zero (when a=e)

3 0
3 years ago
Please help, as soon as possible...
vodomira [7]

Answer:

1. a) Square

2. c) Rectangle

Step-by-step explanation:

1. If you cut this rectangular prism in way to be PERPENDICULAR to the base, that means you're cutting it straight down, from the top to the bottom, in a vertical line.  The cross-section obtained will be just like an end of the prism, which in this case is a square.  Because it's a regular rectangular prism, no matter where you cut it, as long as it's vertical, perpendicular to the base, you'll get a square due to this particular form.  Technically, the answer could also be a rectangle, since a square is a rectangle.

2.  you cut this rectangular prism in way to be PARALLEL to the base, that means you're cutting it straight, from the front to the back, in an horizontal line. The cross-section obtained will be just like an top of the prism, which in this case is a rectangle.  Because it's a regular rectangular prism, no matter where you cut it, as long as it's an horizontal line, parallel to the base, you'll get a rectangle due to this particular form.

6 0
3 years ago
A right triangle has a hypotenuse length of 13 units. One leg has a length of 12 units. Which equation can be used to determine
irinina [24]

Answer:

The length of the other leg is 12

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
There are $1.95 worth of nickels and quarters in a piggy bank there are three more nickels than quarters how many of each are in
Gennadij [26K]

Answer:

6 quarters and 9 nickels

Step-by-step explanation:

6 quarters is equal to $1.50. 6 nickels is equal to $0.30. Those together equal $1.80, then add the three nickels bringing your total to $1.95.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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