We have to determine the complete factored form of the given polynomial
.
Let x= -1 in the given polynomial.
So, 
So, by factor theorem
(x+1) is a factor of the given polynomial.
So, dividing the given polynomial by (x+1), we get quotient as
.
So,
= (x+1)
.
= 
=![(x+1)[ 2x(3x-5)-3(3x-5)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28x%2B1%29%5B%202x%283x-5%29-3%283x-5%29%5D)
=
is the completely factored form of the given polynomial.
Option D is the correct answer.
Answer:
a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Step-by-step explanation:
for the equation
(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0
(1 + x⁴) dy = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx
[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
now to solve each integral
I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
for u= x² → du=x*dx
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂
then
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C
for y(x=1) = 0
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C
since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be
1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C
C= π/4
therefore
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Answer:
1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
50% is 0.5 or 1/2 so you just multiply 1/3 by 1/2 to get 1/6
A) x-6; you have x amount of money and pay 6 dollars for a hat.
b) 2(x2);