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exis [7]
3 years ago
7

Why might the federal government decide to intervene in the housing market to promote home​ ownership?

Business
1 answer:
Ksivusya [100]3 years ago
6 0
The answer to this question is <span>To make it easier for families to borrow money to purchase a home. Most citizens in united states use real estate as a way to purchase long-term investment as their wealth accumulation.
To ensure citizen's economic safety in the future, it is wise for the government to provide an easier way to obtain home ownership such as cheap mortgages. </span>
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Which of these phrases is a call to action?
Gemiola [76]

D -it's trying to get you to call so it's a call to action

5 0
3 years ago
What budget item is NOT easy to lower if your salary is decreased?
zubka84 [21]
Well, insurance or taxes! :D
3 0
3 years ago
A standard "money demand" function used by macroeconomists has the form ln( ) = + ln( ) + m β , 0 β1 GDP β2R Where m is the quan
kvasek [131]

Answer:

1.The money demand will rise by 1.154%

2. The money demanded will fall and for a 1% increase in interest , the money demanded will fall by 0.38%

Explanation:

1. Money demand function

ln(m) = β0 +β1 ln(GDP)+β2R

Suppose β1 = 1.5 , β2 = −0.04 , GDP = $ 100 & R = 3%

ln(m) = 1.5 ln ($100) - 0.04 X 0.03

ln(m) = 6.91

m = 1002.247

Suppose the GDP increases by 1%; the new GDP will be = $ 101  

ln(m) = 1.5 ln ($101) - 0.04 X 0.03

ln(m) = 6.92

m = 1013.81

If the GDP increases by 1% ,the money demand will rise by 1.154%

2.

If the interest rate increases from 3% to 4%

ln(m) = 1.5 ln ($100) - 0.04 X 0.04  

ln(m) = 6.906155

m = $ 998.400

If the interest rate rises from 3% to 4% , the money demanded will fall and for a 1% increase in interest , the money demanded will fall by 0.38%

3 0
3 years ago
Seth is mentally incompetent but has not been adjudged by a court to be incompetent. Seth enters into a contract with Toby for t
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

Void

Explanation:

Void is the term of law, which is defined as the contract is not valid currently, and the parties of the contract are not held to its terms. The void contract is the one which is generally unenforceable.

The contract could be void because of many reasons like the contract need one party to perform that act which is impossible or in that case, where one party is not mentally incompetent.

So, in this case, the contract is most likely to be void as the contract with the party who is mentally incompetent, though the party has not been adjudged through court.

6 0
3 years ago
What is this form used for?
Tatiana [17]
For your savings account.


I hope it helped you!
3 0
3 years ago
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