Answer:
it will be a net loss of 560,000
It is better to produce at a loss of 60,000 than a loss of 620,000
That's because, the Division cover a good portion of their allocate fixed cost.
Explanation:
The fixed expense are allocate cost. Are unavoidable cost It will remain even if the division is dropped.
The sales and variable cost will be zero.
After posting the values, we calculate the differential income.
In this case it will be a loss for 560,000
Answer:
7.84%
Explanation:
Given:
Bond's par value (FV) = $1,000
Maturity (nper) = 25 × 2 = 50 periods (since it's semi-annual)
YTM (rate) = 0.0925÷2 = 0.04625 semi annually
Price of bond (PV) = $875
Calculate coupon payment (pmt) using spreadsheet function =pmt(rate,nper,-PV,FV)
PV is negative as it's a cash outflow.
So semi- annual coupon payment is $39.20
Annual coupon payment = 39.2×2 = $78.40
Nominal Coupon rate = Annual coupon payment ÷ Par value
= 78.4 ÷ 1000
= 0.0784 or 7.84%
Answer:
The percentage loss will be "-9.08%". The further explanation is given below.
Explanation:
The given values are:
Invested amount
= 20,000
Price of purchase
= $66
Total number of shares
= 500
The borrowed amount will be:
=
=
When the price increase to 69.63, the gain will be:
=
= ($)
The total gain will be:
=
=
Increase in percentage will be:
=
= %
Whereas if price stays quite well at $66, there is really no increase, so the percentage growth would be 0%.
If the price declines toward a loss of 62,37 per share:
=
=
Now,
The total loss will be:
=
=
The percentage loss will be:
=
= (%)