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garri49 [273]
3 years ago
6

If f is a function whose domain includes all real numbers, the improper integral ∫∞−∞f(x)dx is defined to equal ∫0−∞f(x)dx∫∞0 f(

x)dx provided both of those improper integrals converge. with that definition in mind, the improper integral ∫∞−∞x 31+x 4 dx will:
Mathematics
1 answer:
larisa [96]3 years ago
8 0
Polynomials are unbounded, so the integral will diverge.
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given f(x), we want to get g(x)

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Let us take a look at the second option

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nikdorinn [45]

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