Answer:
True
Explanation:
A single use plan is basically a one time business transaction that is supposed to take place only once and should not be repeated in the future. In this case, the production plant has been used for more than 100 years, but once it is sold, its history and the company should no longer have any type of relationship with it.
Due to the greatest cost of goods sold, the LIFO (Last In Last Out) technique displays the lowest net profitability. Compared to the other techniques of inventory valuation, the cost of goods sold for the LIFO approach is the greatest.
<h3>Which technique of inventory valuation will result in the lowest net profit?</h3>
The application of LIFO will produce the lowest net income and the greatest estimated cost of goods sold among the three options during periods of inflation.
<h3>Which method of inventory has the lowest income tax rate?</h3>
LIFO is the inventory cost flow method that yields the lowest income tax liability. A form of inventory cost flow mechanism called last-in-first-out (LIFO) operates under the presumption that the last item acquired will be the first item to be sold.
<h3>In an era of inflation, which inventory method results in the lowest income tax?</h3>
Due to increasing COGS, LIFO leads to reduced net income (and taxes). However, under LIFO during inflation, there are fewer inventory write-downs. Results from average cost are in the middle of FIFO and LIFO.
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Answer:
$56,520
Explanation:
As per given data
Year Sales Working Capital 18%
0 $279,000 ($50,220)
1 $308,000 ($5,220)
2 $314,000 ($1,080)
3 $314,000 $0
4 $314,000 $56,520
As the sales value of year 2, 3 and 4 are same, as capital is adjusted in year 2 and company has equal working capital required in year 3, years 4 is the last year of the project so, working capital will be recovered from the project
Net Working capital will be reimbursed at the end of the project. The accumulated value of investment in working capital will be recorded as cash inflow in the analysis.
Answer:
SO expected return on Mkt Portfolio Rm = 10.75%
Explanation:
market degree of risk aversion A = 3
Var = 0.0225 = SD^2
Rf = 4%
What is expected return on Mkt Portfolio ie Rm??
According to CAPM, Rm-Rf = A*SD^2
where SD is Std Dev (Recall SD^2 = Variance)
A is market degree of risk aversion
So we have Rm-4% = 3*0.0225
ie Rm = 4% + 3*0.0225 = 10.75%
SO expected return on Mkt Portfolio Rm = 10.75%