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alekssr [168]
4 years ago
7

A firm has decided to use the fair value option to record the value of a long-term liability. if the fair value of the liability

decreases, how should the firm respond?
Business
1 answer:
emmainna [20.7K]4 years ago
8 0
A fair value option is the alternative  for a business to record its financial instruments at the fair values. Liabilities are company's financial debts or obligations that arise in the course of business operations. They may be long term or short term. In this case, if the fair value of the liability decreases, the firm should respond by crediting the unrealized Holding Gain/loss in the income account.
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Vacation Destinations offers its employees the option of contributing up to 7% of their salaries to a voluntary retirement plan,
aliina [53]

Answer:

Follows are the solution to the given points:

Explanation:

For question 1:

Exp on the Debit Salary = $ 1,500,000

Credit payable Income tax = $375,000

Credit accounts payable (pension plan)= $63,000

Credit  payable tax on FICA= $114,750

Credit  payable salary (Balance) $947,250

For question 2:

Exp = $100,500 for Debit Wages

Cr.=   $31,500 (Surgical Insurance) Payable accounts

Cr. =  $6,000 in insurance accounts payable

Cr. = $63,000  Payable Accounts (Pension plan) 

For question 3:

EXP= $207,750  for Debit Payroll Tax

Cr. =  $114,750 for FICA payable tax

Cr.  =$93000 for Federal and State (Unemployment tax)

FICA TAX = \$1500,000 \times  \frac{(6.2+1.45)}{100} = \$ 114,750\\

Tax on state or federal unemployment =\$ 1500,000 \times  6.2 \% = \$ 93,000\\

5 0
3 years ago
Parsons Corporation uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply manufacturing overhead to jobs. Last
arsen [322]

Answer:

option (C) 32,750 hours

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Actual manufacturing overhead cost = $250,000

Overapplied overhead = $12,000

Predetermined overhead rate = $8.00 per direct labor-hour

Now,

The total Manufacturing Overhead applied last year

= Actual manufacturing overhead cost + Overapplied overhead

=  $250,000 + $12,000

= $262,000

Therefore,

Direct Labor Hours worked last year = \frac{\textup{Total Manufacturing Overhead applied}}{\textup{Predetermined overhead rate}}

or

=  \frac{\textup{262,000}}{\textup{8}}

= 32,750 hours

Hence,

The correct answer is option (C) 32,750 hours

6 0
3 years ago
MC Qu. 151 Using the information below for... Using the information below for Sundar Company; determine the total manufacturing
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

Manufacturing Cost = 94,100

Explanation:

Given that,

Direct materials used = $ 20,500

Direct labor used = 26,000

Factory overhead = 47,600

Beginning work in process = 12,200

Ending work in process = 12,800

Manufacturing Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor + Factory Overhead

Manufacturing Cost = $20,500 + 26,000 + 47,600

Manufacturing Cost = 94,100

5 0
3 years ago
Bothell Company uses a job order costing system that allocates estimated overhead as 40% of prime costs. What is the cost of a j
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

$10,080

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of the job is shown below:

We know that

prime cost = direct material + Direct labor

= $2,000 + $5,200

= $,7200

Now  overhead is

= 40% of $7200

= $2,880

And,

Cost of job = direct material + Direct labor + overhead

= $2,000 + $5,200 + $2,880

= $10,080

4 0
3 years ago
The Canadian government decided to issue a consol (a bond with a never-ending interest payment and no maturity date). The bond w
zhenek [66]

Answer:

present value of perpetuity  = $1111.11

present value of perpetuity  = $588.23

if interest rate fall price go up and interest rate rise price go down

Explanation:

given data

bond pay = $50

solution

first we find present value of perpetuity for 6.5 % that is

present value of perpetuity = \frac{cash flow}{discount}     ..............1

present value of perpetuity =  \frac{50}{0.065}

present value of perpetuity  = $769.23

now  present value of perpetuity for 4.5%

so from equation 1 we get

present value of perpetuity =  \frac{50}{0.045}

present value of perpetuity  = $1111.11

and

now  present value of perpetuity for 8.5%

so from equation 1 we get

present value of perpetuity =  \frac{50}{0.085}

present value of perpetuity  = $588.23

so

here we know that current price of perpetuity & discount rate is inversely proportional

so current present value is find by divide cash flow by discount rate

here discount rate higher value of perpetuity

so if interest rate fall price go up and interest rate rise price go down

4 0
3 years ago
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