Sam counted Out Loud by 6's Jorge counted Out Loud by 8s what are the first three numbers both Sam and George said

Mr. Hughes gave 5/14

kow [346]

Answer:

His savings were of $4,200.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mr. Hughes gave 5/14 of his savings to his son, 2/3 of the remainder to his daughter, and the rest to his wife:

This means that the son and daughter amount is:

$\frac{5}{14} + \frac{2}{3}(\frac{9}{14})$

As $\frac{9}{14}$ is the remained that his son did not get. So

$\frac{5}{14} + \frac{2}{3}(\frac{9}{14}) = \frac{15}{42} + \frac{18}{42} = \frac{33}{42}$

Fraction his wife got:

$1 - \frac{33}{42} = \frac{42}{42} - \frac{33}{42} = \frac{9}{42}$

If his wife got $900, what were his savings?

Total savings are x, wife got $\frac{9}{42}$ of x. So

$\frac{9x}{42} = 900$

$9x = 900*42$

$x = \frac{900*42}{9}$

$x = 100*42$

$x = 4200$

His savings were of $4,200.

5 0

2 years ago

Find the value of 2 - 3x when x = 7 PLEASE HELP ME :(

Sergio [31]

Answer:

-19

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

I =125 r=6% t=1 what is p

vfiekz [6]

There is no P in here, you can't solve for P without a P, Or I just don't get the question.

4 0

3 years ago

How do you do this question?

Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

V = (About) 22.2, Graph = First graph/Graph in the attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that in all these cases, we have a specified method to use, the washer method, disk method, and the cylindrical shell method. Keep in mind that the washer and disk method are one in the same, but I feel that the disk method is better as it avoids splitting the integral into two, and rewriting the curves. Here we will go with the disk method.

$\mathrm{V\:=\:\pi \int _a^b\left(r\right)^2dy\:},\\\mathrm{V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy}$

The plus 1 in '1 + 2/x' is shifting this graph up from where it is rotating, but the negative 1 is subtracting the area between the y-axis and the shaded region, so that when it's flipped around, it becomes a washer.

$V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy,\\\\\mathrm{Take\:the\:constant\:out}:\quad \int a\cdot f\left(x\right)dx=a\cdot \int f\left(x\right)dx\\=\pi \cdot \int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1dy\\\\\mathrm{Apply\:the\:Sum\:Rule}:\quad \int f\left(x\right)\pm g\left(x\right)dx=\int f\left(x\right)dx\pm \int g\left(x\right)dx\\= \pi \left(\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy-\int _1^31dy\right)\\\\$

$\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy=4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}, \int _1^31dy=2\\\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}-2\right)\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{8}{3}\right)$

Our exact solution will be V = π(4In(3) + 8/3). In decimal form it will be about 22.2 however. Try both solution if you like, but it would be better to use 22.2. Your graph will just be a plot under the curve y = 2/x, the first graph.

5 0

3 years ago

There is a spinner with 14 equal areas, numbered 1 through 14. If the spinner is spun one time, what is the probability that the

vfiekz [6]

Answer:

Probability that the result is a multiple of 4 or a multiple of 3= 0.428

Step-by-step explanation:

The spinner is divided into 14 equal areas.

Probability of an event= $\frac{number of favourable outcomes}{total number of outcomes}$

For favourable events,result should be a multiple of 3 or 4.

All the possible outcomes are=1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14

Multiples of 3=3,6,9,12

Multiples of 4=4,8,12

Hence the favourable outcomes are=3,4,6,8,9,12

Number of favourable outcomes=6

Total number of outcomes=14

Probability= $\frac{6}{14}$

=0.428

5 0

2 years ago