Answer:
The correct answer is A) 4/663.
Step-by-step explanation:
First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.
Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king of clubs) in a deck of cards, the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.
Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,
4/52 x 4/51 =
4 x 4/52 x 51 =
16/2652
Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:
16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and
2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.
So, the final answer is 4/663.
150 minus 30 equals 120 but i did 150/30 and got 5
Answer: It is (x - 3)(x + 5)
the length of segment AB is 13
To help you understand this, it is helpful to create a sample set of data:
__,__,__,(Q1 is here)__,__,__,(median is here)__, __,__,(Q3is here)__,__,__
A. The first 3 lines are 3 pieces of data in the first quartile.
B. here are 6 pieces of data between the 1st and 3rd quartiles.
D. There are 3 pieces of data in the upper quartile.
