What is your question?
(Please don report me, im just trying to help, really)
If theres supposed to be a picture, i dont see anything btw.
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Answer:
(x, y) = (3, 2)
Step-by-step explanation:
The attached graph shows the solution.
(x, y) = (3, 2)
Use
y-y1=m(x-x1)
y-(-2)=4(x-1) Now why 4??Because parallel lines have the exact same slope
y+2=4x-4
y=4x-4-2
y=4x-6
Hope it helps!
~Just a teen who listens to music
I'm going to use the slope formula which is
m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)
where (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) are the two points the line goes through
Slope of line PQ
m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)
m = (-6 - 8)/(-5 - (-7))
m = (-6 - 8)/(-5 + 7)
m = (-14)/(2)
m = -7
The slope of line PQ is -7
Slope of RS
m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)
m = (0 - (-5))/(-2 - 3)
m = (0 + 5)/(-2 - 3)
m = (5)/(-5)
m = -1
The slope of line RS is -1
Because the slopes are NOT equal (one is -7 and the other is -1), this means the lines are NOT parallel.
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Answer: Choice B) No, the lines have unequal slopes
\left[x \right] = \left[ \frac{3}{8}\right][x]=[83] totally answer
