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GalinKa [24]
3 years ago
10

How do you write 83,023,007 in expanded form?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Goshia [24]3 years ago
8 0
80000000+3000000+20000+3000+7
Colt1911 [192]3 years ago
4 0
80,000,000+3,000,000+20,000+3,000+7
Thats how my teacher told me to do expanded form.
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Solve for x. 3/5x + 5 = 4/5 Enter your answer in the box.
melisa1 [442]
I got      
3/5x = -1/5
x = -1/3
6 0
4 years ago
ASAP, this question is 25 points. Please help me! I´ĺl vote you. Please help me!
Vikki [24]
Because two negative equal out to a positive not a negative. Hope this helped sorry if it’s wrong.
3 0
3 years ago
A given binomial experiment has n=100 trials and p=1/3. Is it more likely to get x=20 successes or x=45 successes. Why?
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

The P(x=45) is more that the P(x=20). Therefore x=45 successes is more likely to get.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given information: n=100 and p=1/3.

According to the binomial distribution, the probability of getting r success in n trials is

P(x=r)=^nC_rp^rq^{n-r}

where, n is total trials, p is probability of success and q is probability of failure.

Total trials, n = 100

Probability of success, p = \frac{1}{3}

Probability of failure, q = 1-\frac{1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}

The probability of 20 successes is

P(x=20)=^{100}C_{20}\times (\frac{1}{3})^{20}\times (\frac{2}{3})^{100-20}

P(x=20)=\frac{100!}{20!(100-20)!}\times (\frac{1}{3})^{20}\times (\frac{2}{3})^{80}\approx 0.001257

The probability of 45 successes is

P(x=45)=^{100}C_{45}\times (\frac{1}{3})^{45}\times (\frac{2}{3})^{100-45}

P(x=45)=\frac{100!}{45!(100-45)!}\times (\frac{1}{3})^{45}\times (\frac{2}{3})^{55}\approx 0.004296

The P(x=45) is more that the P(x=20). Therefore x=45 successes is more likely to get.

3 0
4 years ago
Can someone help math is sum else
Marianna [84]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Symmetric means one side looks the same as another side such as a square. It isn't symmetric because the other side doesn't have the same side as the other so it isn't bell shaped and isn't symmetric

7 0
3 years ago
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Question 5 of 5
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

It's D. 5

Step-by-step explanation:

A^2 + B^2 = C^2

3 0
3 years ago
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