You can either use the inverse function theorem or compute the general derivative using implicit differentiation. The first method is slightly faster.

The IFT goes like this: if f(x) is invertible and f(a) = b, then finv(b) = a (where "finv" means "inverse of f").

By definition of inverse functions, we have

f(finv(x)) = finv(f(x)) = x

Differentiating both sides of the second equality with respect to x using the chain rule gives

finv'(f(x)) * f'(x) = 1

When x = a, we get

finv'(b) * f'(a) = 1

finv'(b) = 1/f'(a)

Now let f(x) = sin(x), which is invertible over the interval -π/2 ≤ x ≤ π/2. In the interval, we have sin(x) = √3/2 when x = π/3. We also have f'(x) = cos(x).

So we take a = π/3 and b = √3/2. Then

arcsin'(√3/2) = 1/cos(π/3) = 1/(1/2) = 2

4 0

2 years ago

Will’s bowling average after 5 games was 120. In his next 3 games,Will scored 118, 124, and 142. What was Will’s bowling average

Irina-Kira [14]

His new average is 123.

3 0

2 years ago