Answer:
c. 10%
Explanation:
The Yield to Maturity(YTM) of the Bond is the cost of the debt. So, we need to find the YTM first.
Here i will use a Financial Calculator to enter and compute the YTM as follows :
N = 20× 2 = 40
PMT = ($1,000 × 8%) ÷ 2 = $40
PV = $828
P/YR = 2
FV = 1,000
I or YTM = ?
Thus the cost of the Bond is 10%
Answer:
$10,125 Favorable
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity
Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)
Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)
Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750
Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable
Variable overhead spending variance is
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
As demand for a specific product goes higher up for prices, consumers (the people who buy things) would be willing to pay more for an item.
Answer:
b. exported more than $11 billion worth of goods
Explanation:
Given that
Favorable balance of trade = $11 billion
And we know that
Net exports = Exports - imports
This given situation describes that the export value of goods is more than the import value of goods that reflect the net exports and the favorable balance too.
So by considering the net exports, we can conclude that option b is a correct option