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3 years ago

He product of 6 and q."

Mathematics

1 answer:

Oxana [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 6 and q

you get 6q

q+q+q+q+q+q

you get

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Can someone please answer me question 4a only

bixtya [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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1 year ago

What is the least even number you can make with the digits 5 2 7 3 6 4 0?

coldgirl [10]

0234576 You just need to put the numbers in order form least to greatest and leave an even number at the end.

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3 years ago

If you roll a fair 10-sided die 7 times, what is the probability that the die lands on "10" exactly 2 times?

nexus9112 [7]

Answer: 2:7 times

Step-by-step explanation: hope it helps u

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1 year ago

Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,

Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that $p = 0.15$

Sample of 6:

This means that $n = 6$

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771$

$P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764$

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0

2 years ago

Use two unit multipliers to convert 20 inches to miles

jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I answered another one of your questions so I will not explain as much. ther are 12 inches in a foot and then 5280 feet in a mile so that's 1 ft/ 12 in and 1 mi/ 5280 ft. So the math is 20 in * 1 ft/ 12 in * 1 mi/ 5280 ft = .000315 mi.

In reference to the last one, do keep in mind "square" inches and whatnot mean you square things. so 1 ft/ 12 in becomes 1 ft^2/ 144 in^2. Just as a small heads up to what could be tricky.

6 0

2 years ago