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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
3 years ago
13

Which choice is it ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B. 10 acres

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

f加班7u后7个6 个预告v78 yi不同承认TVB员工

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3 years ago
I need help and I will give brainliest to the person with the right answers and explanation
densk [106]

Answer:     Part A: y= -1200x +25000 this is because it decreases 1200$ a year that is your rate of change and it started at 25000 that is your y-intercept

                  Part B:  question a would be 46000$ because that’s where the zero is which is when he bought it question b is 3000$ because that is how much the table decreases with each year

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

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5 0
3 years ago
“Use the rule 5n - 2 to complete the missing entry labeled A and B in the input-output table below”
Shtirlitz [24]

Step-by-step explanation:

5n-2

5(4) - 2

20-2=18

A= 18

5n - 2 =48

5n=48+2

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divide by 5

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7 0
3 years ago
If there is a 1 in 2, 100 chance that you will pick the numbers correctly in​ tonight's lottery, what is the probability that yo
Citrus2011 [14]

Answer:

2,099/2,100

Step-by-step explanation:

2,100-1=2,099

6 0
3 years ago
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