Answer:
Infinite Solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
If you distribute the left side of the expression, you will get 3y -32, which is exactly the same as the right side of the equation. Since both lines are the same, that means that they have an infinite amount of solutions. Therefore, the 4th choice is correct.
<span> a) F' = 6 sin(x^2) = 0
x^2 = pi
x = sqrt(pi)
b) Fmax = F(1) + integral [1, pi] f(x) dx = 9.7743 </span>
5 can go into 20 numbers between 1-100 and 8 can go into 12 numbers between 1-100
Value of 3 is in the solution set
