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3 years ago

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A firm has net working capital of $350. long-term debt is $600, total assets are $950 and fixed assets are $400. what is the amo

unt of the total liabilities? $200 $400 $600 $800 $1,200

1 answer:

AnnyKZ [126]3 years ago

5 0

800 is the total liabilities

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charger company's most recent balance sheet reports total assets of $28,413,000, total liabilities of $16,113,000 and total equi

OleMash [197]

The debt to equity ratio for the period, based on the total liabilities and total equity, would be 1.31

<h3>How to find the debt to equity ratio?</h3>

The debt to equity ratio shows the amount of debt that a company has as a ratio of the debts to the equity that the company has.

The debt to equity ratio can be found by the formula:

= Total liabilities / Total Equity

Total liabilities = $16, 113, 000

Total equity = $12, 300, 000

The debt to equity ratio is therefore:
= 16, 113, 000 / 12, 300, 000

= 1.31

Find out more on the debt to equity ratio at brainly.com/question/27993089

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5 0

1 year ago

Which of the following is an example of internally caused behavior? An employee was laid off because the company was attempting

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

An employee was fired from work because he violated company policy

Explanation:

One of the factor that determine the behavior of people is the way the event arround them is interpreted. Those that can control things arround them usually take responsibility for what they do compare to set of people believing that situation arround them is beyond their control, which is explained in" attribution theory" by Fritz Heider. Internally caused behavior can be regarded as challenging behavioras a result of internal stimuli such as traits, pain and anxiety.

Out of the options given in the question only "An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy" is an example of internally caused behavior, since the violation is on the path of the employee which is as a result of internal behavior known to him.

6 0

4 years ago

When countries sell off state-owned enterprises and privatize them, it usually results in a(n)A. continuing drain on future natu

babymother [125]

Answer:

C. increase in modernization by new investors.

Explanation:

Privatization is the transfer of ownership of property or business owned by government to a private entity.

Privatization generates capital to be invested in strategic areas and help to reduce the continuing drain on future natural resources. The new private investors causes economic growth by modernizing the acquired property or business from the government.

5 0

3 years ago

Steadigen Company sells two generators long dash Model A and Model Blong dashfor $ 432 per unit and $ 410 per unit, respectively

ch4aika [34]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Contribution margin per unit = Sales - variable cost

Contribution margin per unit (Model A) = $432 - $404

Contribution margin per unit (Model A) = $28 per unit

Contribution margin per unit (Model B) = $410 - $304

Contribution margin per unit (Model B) = $106 per unit

False, Contribution margin per unit (Model B) is higher so, motivated to push sales of Model A will be false.

Break-even in units = Fixed cost / Contribution margin per unit

Break-even in units (Model A) = Fixed cost / $28

Break-even in units (Model B) = Fixed cost / $106

6 0

3 years ago

Keenan Industries has a bond outstanding with 15 years to maturity, an 8.25% nominal coupon, semiannual payments, and a $1,000 p

ycow [4]

Answer:

6.52%

Explanation:

For computing the nominal yield to call, first we have to find out the present value by applying the present value formula which is shown in the attachment below:

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 6.50% ÷ 2 = 3.25%

NPER = 15 years × 2 = 30 years

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2 = $41.25

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the present value is $1,166.09

Now to determine the yield to call we use the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment below:

Present value = $1,166.09

Future value or Face value = $1,120

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2 = $41.25

NPER = 6 years × 2 = 12 years

The formula is shown below:

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this, the bond nominal yield to call is

= 3.26% × 2 years

= 6.52%

8 0

4 years ago