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yanalaym [24]
2 years ago
6

(bank deregulation some economists argue that deregulating the interest rates that could be paid on deposits combined with depos

it insurance led to the insolvency of many depository institutions. on what basis do they make such an argument?
Business
1 answer:
muminat2 years ago
3 0
Base on my research this type of argument is baseless but it depends on the 100% free enterprise market system. With this system, the government doesn't have regulatory powers to protect the interest of the consumers from the financial institutions. In a situation that without the interest rate modulation, the rate charged on loans could be 40% while the rate paid on savings could be 1%. If this happens the financial institutions will not have to pay FDIC insurance to ensure the solvency of the overall system. 
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Sheffield Corp. traded machinery with a book value of $978480 and a fair value of $906000. It received in exchange from Ivanhoe
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

Gain $72,480

Explanation:

Calculation for the amount of gain or loss that Sheffield should recognize on the exchange

Using this formula

Gain/Loss= Book value – Fair value

Let plug in the formula

Gain/Loss= $978,480 – $906,000

Gain=$72,480

Therefore the amount of gain or loss that Sheffield should recognize on the exchange will be $72,480

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Handwriting and correct spelling on a work order aren't all that important because they have nothing to do with how well you fix
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VashaNatasha [74]

1.plan that earns tax-deferred interest income and has high risk

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2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 27-year U.S. Treasury bond with a face value of $1,000 pays a coupon of 6.00% (3.000% of face value every six months). The rep
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

(A) $1,055.35  (B) $2,180.53  (C) $780.07  (D) $412.08.

Explanation:

The tenor of the bond is 27 years i.e. (27 * 2=) 54 periods of 6 months each (n).

Face Value (F) = $1,000

Coupon (C) = 6% annually = 3% semi annually = (3% * 1000 face value) = $30.

The Present Value (PV) of the Bond is computed as follows.

PV of recurring coupon payments + PV of face value at maturity

= \frac{C(1-(1+r)^{-n}) }{r} + \frac{F}{(1+r)^{n}}

A) Yield = 5.6% annually = 2.8% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.028)^{-54}) }{0.028} + \frac{1,000}{(1.028)^{54}}

= 830.25 + 225.10

= $1,055.35.

B) Yield = 1% annually = 0.5% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.005)^{-54}) }{0.005} + \frac{1,000}{(1.005)^{54}}

= 1,416.64 + 763.89

= $2,180.53.

C) Yield = 8% annually = 4% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.04)^{-54}) }{0.04} + \frac{1,000}{(1.04)^{54}}

= 659.79 + 120.28

= $780.07.

D) Yield = 15% annually = 7.5% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.075)^{-54}) }{0.075} + \frac{1,000}{(1.075)^{54}}

= 391.95 + 20.13

= $412.08.

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