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Troyanec [42]
3 years ago
10

Morris Company had the following adjusted trial balance:

Business
1 answer:
kondaur [170]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$38,100 ; $45,600 and $0

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

For amount transferred from the income summary account to the Retained Earnings account in the third closing entry i.e net income or net loss

As we know that

Net income = Total revenues - total expenses

Commission revenue $49,700

Rent revenue $7,300

Less: expenses

Depreciation expense - $5,200

Utilities expense -$8,600

Supplies expense -$5,100

Net income $38,100

The balance in retained earning account is

= Opening retained earning balance + net income - dividend paid

= $22,500 + $38,100 - $15,000

= $45,600

And, the balance in depreciation expense account is zero as this depreciation expense account is closed while closing the expenses account i.e utilities expense, supplies expense and depreciation expenses

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During the second quarter of the year, Wallace Enterprises received $30,000 from customers in exchange for providing electronic
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

On an income statement, the company would declare c. $21,000 expenses

Explanation:

Wallace Enterprises received $30,000 from customers in exchange for providing electronic components. Income from the exchange was $30,000

During the second quarter of the year, total expense = supplies expense + interest expenses + wages expense = $5,000 + $1,000 + $15,000 = $21,000

Income from the exchange - total expense = $30,000 - $21,000 = $9,000>0

The company recognizes gain $9,000.

On an income statement, the company would declare $21,000 expenses

5 0
3 years ago
What are the implications of sharing confidential material information?
Norma-Jean [14]
The implication of sharing confidential material information is about having to keep a certain thing private in a way that it should be remained secret and hidden unless it has been given consent by the person who holds the privacy to be told to another party. It is not release carelessly and should be handled with care as it should be kept by the person withholding the information.
5 0
3 years ago
Marshall Inc. recently hired your consulting firm to improve the company's performance. It has been highly profitable but has be
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

148.02 days

Explanation:

The computation of the cash conversion cycle is shown below:

As we know that

Cash conversion cycle is = Days inventory outstanding + days sale outstanding - days payable outstanding

where,

Number of days inventory outstanding is

= Average inventory ÷ cost of goods sold per day

= $75000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365 days)

= 76.04 days

Number of days sales outstanding is

= Average account receivable ÷ Average sales per day

= $160,000 ÷ ($600,000 ÷ 365)

= 97.33 days

And, the number of days payable outstanding is

= Average accounts payable ÷ cost pf goods sold per day

= $25,000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365)

= 25.35 days

So, the cash conversion cycle is

= 76.04 days + 97.33 days - 25.35 days

= 148.02 days

3 0
3 years ago
Consider two companies in a world with no taxes that are alike except in borrowing choices. Company 1 has no debt​ financing, an
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

Company 1 = $2 per share

Company 2 = $2.50 per share

Explanation:

Given that,

EBIT for both companies = $1,000

Number of shares outstanding for company 1 = 500

Number of shares outstanding for company 2 = 300

Interest paid by company 2 = $250

EPS for company 1:

= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding

= ($1,000 - $0) ÷ 500

= $2 per share

EPS for company 2:

= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding

= ($1,000 - $250) ÷ 300

= $750 ÷ 300

= $2.50 per share

6 0
2 years ago
What is the value of a zero-coupon bond with a yield to maturity of 9 percent, a par value of $1,000, and 10 years to maturity?
Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

$414.64

Explanation:

For computing the value of zero-coupon bond we need to apply the present value formula i.e to be shown in the attachment

Given that,  

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 9% ÷ 2 = 4.5%

NPER = 10 years × 2 = 20 years  

PMT = $0

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after applying the above formula, the present value is $414.64

8 0
3 years ago
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