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Vaselesa [24]
3 years ago
8

The management of prime manufacturing is implementing a plan to minimize production mistakes by allowing teams that work in each

area of the production facility to develop a plan and then monitor their area to ensure the reduction of errors. the managers are engaging in
Business
2 answers:
vredina [299]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Quality control

Explanation:

In order to minimize production mistakes, the manages are engaging in quality control. Quality control will ensure that quality of prime manufactured products meet with the specifications and requirements of their customers. It would also ensure that resources are not being wasted in the production processes rather are being used for improved quality products.

marshall27 [118]3 years ago
4 0

<span>The managers are engaging in quality control to lessen the error of the result of the operation in the company. Quality control is maintaining the standards of company products by testing the products. It is also the way of ensuring the quality of products or services they rendered.</span>

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How many years are required for an investment to double in value if it is appreciating at the rate of 9​% compounded​ continuous
Vesna [10]

Answer:

time required is 7.70 years

Explanation:

given data

interest rate = 9%

solution

we know with the compounded​ continuously rate r and time t amount is

A(t) = A(o) e^{rt}     .................1

and we have given amount is double so

A(t) = 2 A(o)

so from equation 1 put the value and we get here

2 A(o) = A(o) e^{rt}

ln(2) = 0.09 t

solve it we get time

time t = 7.70 years

so time required is 7.70 years

7 0
3 years ago
12. Market efficiency and perfect price discrimination Perfect price discrimination is efficient because it converts what would
Nady [450]

Market efficiency is achieved with perfect price discrimination because what would have been dead-weight loss is converted into consumer and producer surplus through perfect price discrimination.

For the market, efficiency is achieved because the dead-weight loss is converted into producer and consumer surpluses, with enormous benefits to the society.

Thus, perfect price discrimination achieves allocation efficiency for both the producer and the consumer (or the society as a whole).

Learn more about market efficiency and price discrimination here: brainly.com/question/10234084

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Qu. 10-150 (Algo) Majer Corporation makes a product with ... Majer Corporation makes a product with the following standard costs
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

Direct material quantity variance= $10,000 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard Direct materials 6.4 ounces $ 2.00 per ounce.

Actual output 6,000 units

Raw materials used in production 33,400 ounces

<u>To calculate the direct material quantity variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Direct material quantity variance= (standard quantity - actual quantity)*standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (6.4*6,000 - 33,400)*2

Direct material quantity variance= (38,400 - 33,400)*2

Direct material quantity variance= $10,000 favorable

3 0
3 years ago
A country might create safety standards for certain products that other nations can't comply with. As a result, these nations ca
otez555 [7]

Answer:

administrative trade policy

Explanation:

A country might create safety standards for certain products that other nations can't comply with. As a result, these nations can't be involved with exporting parts for those goods and trade does not exist. These safety standards are a form of administrative trade policy.

Administrative trade policies are bureaucratic rules that are almost always <u>deliberately designed to restrict the flow of a particular import into a country</u>.

3 0
3 years ago
Another company plans to issue 20-year bonds with a face value of $1,000 and an annual coupon rate of 10%. The market price of s
Lorico [155]

The after-tax cost of debt is 6.28%.  Subtract a company's effective tax rate from one and multiply the difference by its cost of debt to calculate its after-tax cost of debt.

<h3>What is After-tax cost?</h3>
  • After-tax cost denotes the actual costs less an amount equal to the combined federal and state income tax savings relating to the deductibility of said costs for federal and state tax purposes in the year in which such costs are incurred.
  • WACC represents a company's average after-tax cost of capital from all sources, including common stock, preferred stock, bonds, and other forms of debt.
  • WACC is the average interest rate that a company anticipates paying to finance its assets. The pre-tax cost of debt must be tax-affected because interest is tax-deductible, effectively creating a "tax shield" that is, interest expense reduces a company's taxable income (earnings before taxes, or EBT).

Therefore,

The after-tax cost of debt is 6.28%.

FV = -$1,000

PMT = -$100

N = 20 years

PV = $1,098 before including flotation costs; $1,098×(1-.05) = $1,043.10 after including flotation costs.

Compute I/Y = 9.511%

After-tax cost of debt = 9.511%×(1-.34) = 6.28%

To learn more about After-tax cost, refer to:

brainly.com/question/25790997

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
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