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Serga [27]
3 years ago
8

Vintage Fun reproduces old-fashioned style roller skates and skateboards. The annual production and sales of roller skates is 1,

000 units, while 1 skates require 1.5 direct labor hours per unit, while skateboards require 1:25 direct labor hours per unit. The total estimated overhead for the period used an activity-based costing system, it would have the following three activity cost pools: Expected activity Estimated overhead cost $6,550 $16,000 $91450 Activity cost pool Roller skates Skateboards Total Setup costs 345 320 665 Engineering costs Maintenance costs 490 630 1,120 2,175 2,178 4,353 The overhead cost per skateboard using an activity-based costing system would be closest to (Round all answers to two decimal places.)
A. $45.14
B. $57.91
C. $114.72
D. $33.47
Business
1 answer:
Vesna [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D. $33.47

Explanation:

The computation of overhead cost per skateboard using an activity-based costing system is shown below:-

                                    Total          Expected           Activity

Activity pool cost      Overheads    Activity               Rate

Setup cost                     $6,550           665                9.85

Engineering cost          $16,000        1,120                14.29

maintenance cost        $91,450        4,353               21.01

Activity pool cost          Rate             Driver         Overhead cost  

Setup cost                       9.85              320              3,152  

Engineering cost             14.29             630             9,002.7

maintenance cost            21.01              2,178           45,759.78  

Total Overheads cost                                               57,914.48

Number of units                                                               1,730

Overhead cost per unit                                                $33.48

Therefore for computing the overhead cost per unit we simply divide the total overhead cost by number of units.

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Finerly Corporation sells cosmetics through a network of independent distributors. Finerly shipped cosmetics to its distributors
hjlf

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

Finerly should recognize $0 of revenue upon delivery to distributors. Because of the uncertainty of the returns due to the fact that Finerly does not know if it will have to accept the cosmetics back from the distributors if the cosmetics are not sold, Finerly cannot or should not recognize revenue until it either can estimate in a better way its returns or when the sales actually occur.

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is true? A. The law requires a home inspection prior to every property transaction. B. Most ho
SOVA2 [1]
The correct option is A.
Home inspection refers to the examination of the condition of a home prior to buying. Home inspections are usually conducted by professional home inspectors who had been trained on that field. The law demands that a property should be inspected prior to buying and selling of that property. Home inspection is done purposely to identify any problem that might be associated with the property.
8 0
3 years ago
A company has the opportunity to take over a redevelopment project in an industrial area of a city. No immediate investment is r
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

1-a. The are multiple IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. Rate of return = 7.58%

2. This is NOT a good investment because the NPV is negative.

Explanation:

Note: The estimated Net Cash Flow for the 4th year in the data is erroneously stated in the question as a positive value instead as a negative value since it is a cost.

The estimated net cash flows correctly before answering the question as follows:

Year End             Net Cash Flow

1                             $500,000

2                            $300,000

3                            $100,000

4                          –$2,400,000

5                            $150,000

6                            $200,000

7                            $250,000

8                            $300,000

9                            $350,000

10                           $400,000

The explanation of the answers is now given as follows:

1-a. Tabulate the PW versus the interest rate and determine whether multiple IRRs exist.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the tabulation of the PW versus the interest rate.

From Part 1-a of the attached excel file, it can be observed that multiple IRRs exist. This is because there two IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. If so, use the ERR method when e 8% per year to determine a rate of return.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the calculation of total future value of income when e = 8% per year.

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost not income. Therefore,

From attached excel, we have:

Total Future Value of Income = $3,661,508.81

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost (not income) of $2,400,000. Therefore, it future value is not calculated. However, the present of the cost can be calculated as follows:

Present value of cost in year 4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + e)^4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + 8%)^4 = $1,764,071.65

The rate of return can now be calculated as follows:

Rate of return = ((Total Future Value of Income / Present value of cost in year 4)^(1/Number of period)) - 1 = (($3,661,508.81 / $1,764,071.65)^(1/10)) - 1 = 0.0758, or 7.58%

2. Use the PW method and a MARR of 18% to determine whether this is a good investment.

Note: See Part 2 of the attached excel file for the calculation of net present value (NPV).

From part 2 of the attached excel file, we have:

Net present value = –$21,043.15

Since the net present value is negative, this implies that this is NOT a good investment.

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
(I don't need this answered, I just wanted to put the correct answers out there for other users)
Ronch [10]

Answer:

1 with c

2 with b

3 with a

Explanation:

brain list pls

7 0
3 years ago
Jada converted her personal residence to rental property in 2018. She purchased the property in 2014 for $110,000, of which $10,
creativ13 [48]

Answer:

a)Jada's basis for depreciation in the property is NIL.

b) Personal property that has no intrinsic value is called 'INTANGIBLE PROPERTY'.

Explanation:

Due to a decline in the property values over the past few years Jada has converted her personal residence to rental property and/or investment property which is a subject dealt within IAS 40 (Investment property).

According to IAS 40 an investment property is land or building held to earn rentals or for capital appreciation or both rather than use in the entity. IAS 40 requires to initially measure investment property at cost and subsequently may either measure at cost or fair value model. Fair value is normally established by prevailing market prices.

IAS 40 also mentions that if an asset is revalued to fair value the gain and loss should be recorded in statement of profit and loss and 'NO DEPRECIATION IS CHARGED ON THE ASSET AFTER THE FAIR VALUE MEASUREMENT'.

Therefore, following the instructions laid out by IAS 40 Jada's basis for depreciation in the property is NIL.

2) Personal property with no intrinsic value:

Personal property that has no intrinsic value is called 'INTANGIBLE PROPERTY'.

Lets first understand what intrinsic value is. Intrinsic value of an asset refers to the market led and/or market-driven price of that asset. This means those assets which don't have an active market for sale and purchase will have no intrinsic value. This is absolutely the case with intangible assets, because most intangible assets are unique and uncommon, such as, GOODWILL, PATENTS, COPYRIGHTS, therefore due to the uniqueness and exclusivity of such assets an active market place doesn't exist therefore it's hard to determine an intrinsic value for such kind of assets/ properties.

5 0
3 years ago
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