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ad-work [718]
3 years ago
12

Which of the following statements is FALSE?A. Asset-specific risks can be easily diversified with highly correlated assets in a

portfolioB. Asset-specific risks can be easily diversified with numerous assets in a portfolioC. Bearing risk is rewarded with higher expected returnsD. Only market-wide risks, not asset-specific risks, should earn rewards
Business
2 answers:
Gekata [30.6K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The false statement is letter "D": Only market-wide risks, not asset-specific risks, should earn rewards.

Explanation:

The difference between choosing market-wide risks and asset-specific risks lays in the number of securities the investor decides to trade with. The latter reduces the risk by selecting a reduced number of assets. This is also called <em>unsystematic risk</em>. However, in both cases, the investors may profit from their trades according to their strategy.

Over [174]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D. Only market-wide risks, not asset-specific risks, should earn rewards

Explanation:

Assets are investments that people do in order to see their money grow, there are high risks and low risk investments, for example you can invest in government bonds, and they will pay a low fee but you will never loose your money, while you could have portfolios of money invested in companies and you could loose money there, from the options the one that is incorrect is the last one D. Only market-wide risks, not asset-specific risks, should earn rewards, because all investments should earn rewards.

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While reviewing the books at his firm, Chad Cooper noticed discrepancies between how the firm recorded revenues last year and ho
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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": the services of an independent auditor.

Explanation:

Every time an internal auditor feels there is inaccurate information on the company's books, <em>requesting for an external audit of a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) is a valid option</em>. Auditors must clarify any piece of information that seems ambiguous in a firm's general ledger. Otherwise, if mistakes or fraud are found, the auditor can be considered an accomplice of such activities.

5 0
3 years ago
Interest is eligible to be capitalized as part of an asset's cost, rather than being expensed immediately, when:a. The asset is
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer and Explanation:

d. All of these answer choices are correct.

7 0
3 years ago
The All-Star Basic Value Fund's portfolio is valued at $250 million. The fund has liabilities of $23 million, and the fund’s net
svetoff [14.1K]

$13.27 is the fund's number of shares outstanding

Solution:

Given,

The All-Star Basic Value Fund's portfolio is valued at $250 million

Liabilities of $23 million

Net asset value = 17,100,000

Now ,

To find , fund's number of shares outstanding :

NAV = ($250 million - $23 million)/17.1 million = $13.27

$13.27 is the fund's number of shares outstanding

8 0
3 years ago
For each of the following:
Mama L [17]

Answer and Explanation:

As we know that

The assets, expenses contains debit balance while the liabilities, revenues and stockholder equity contains credit balance

So based on this, the classifications are as follows

Particulars    Type of account    Normal balance    Debit or credit     Reason

a. Land            Asset                      debit                       debit            resources on the owners hand        

b. Cash            Asset                      debit                       debit            resources on the owners hand

c. Legal Expense  = expense        debit                        debit         consumption of cost

d. Accounts Receivable      Asset                      debit                       debit      resources on the owners hand

e. Dividends    =     Equity                debit                          debit   distribution made to owners

g. Notes Payable =   Liability            credit                          credit    obligation made to creditors

h. Common Stock = Equity               credit                         credit    investment done by the owners

8 0
3 years ago
Cost of Debt KatyDid Clothes has a $150 million (face value) 30-year bond issue selling for 104 percent of par that carries a co
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

the annual pre-tax cost of debt is 10.56%

Explanation:

the beore-tax component cost of debt will be the actual market rate of the bonds, as they offer an interest rate of 11% but are selling at 104 points not at par thus, there is a difference between the rates.

We solve for the rate which makes the coupon and maturity 104

with excel or a financial calculator

PV of the coupon payment

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 5.500 (100 x 11%/2)

time 60 (30 years x 2 payment per year)

rate <em>0.052787474</em>

5.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0527874736258532)^{-60} }{0.0527874736258532} = PV\\

PV $99.4338

PV of the maturity

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   100.00

time   60.00

rate  <em>0.052787474</em>

\frac{100}{(1 + 0.0527874736258532)^{60} } = PV  

PV   4.57

<em><u>Adding both we should get 104 which is the amount the bonds is selling:</u></em>

PV coupon $99.4338 + PV maturity  $4.5662 = $104.0000

The rate is generated using goal seek or wiht a financial calculator.

This rate is a semiannual rate, so we multiply by 2 to get the annual cost of debt:

0.052787474 x 2 = 0.105574947

The cost of debt for the firm is 10.56%

5 0
3 years ago
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