How much is one euro is US Dollars

When a remedy at law (i.e., money damages) is fully sufficient to bring justice, equitable remedies are permitted?

Ivanshal [37]

When a court determines that the solution to a case can be satisfied with money damages, that is considered fully sufficient and no other action is taken against a defendant. This is because paying off money damages is considered to be satisfying the contract and makes the case and complaint therein null and void.

7 0

4 years ago

NU YU announced today that it will begin paying annual dividends. The first dividend will be paid next year in the amount of $.4

navik [9.2K]

Answer:

Value of Stock is $6.68

Explanation:

We need to calculate the present value of each dividend payment to arrive at the value of stock.

Number Dividend PV factor PV of Dividend

First $0.47 (1+14%)^-1 = 0.8772 $0.41

Second $0.52 (1+14%)^-2 = 0.7695 $0.40

Third $0.67 (1+14%)^-3 = 0.6750 $0.45

Forth $0.97 (1+14%)^-4 = 0.5921 $0.57

*Perpetuity$9.35 (1+14%)^-5 = 0.5194 $4.85

Total $6.68

* Perpetuity

After 4 year the dividend will be grow at a constant rate. So, it will be considered as the perpetuity and it value at year 5 will be calculated as follow

Dividend Valuation method is used to value the stock price of a company based on the dividend paid, its growth rate and rate of return. The price is calculated by calculating present value of future dividend payment.

As per given data

Dividend = $0.97 x 1.033 = $1

Growth rate = 3.3%

Discount rate = 14%

Formula to calculate the value of stock

Price = Dividend / ( Rate or return - growth rate )

Price = $1 / ( 14% - 3.3% )

Price = $9.35

5 0

3 years ago

Ashley Foods, Inc. has determined that any one of five machines can be used in one phase of its chili canning operation. The cos

julsineya [31]

Answer:

Machine 1 should be selected

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore presented before answering the question as follows:

Ashley Foods, Inc. has determined that any one of five machines can be used in one phase of its chili canning operation. The costs of the machines are estimated below, and all machines are estimated to have a 4-year useful life. If the minimum attractive rate of return is 20% per year, determine which machine should be selected on the basis of a rate or return analysis.

Machine First Cost ($) AOC ($)

1 -31000 -16000

2 -29000 -19300

3 -34500 -17000

4 -49000 -12200

5 -41000 -15500

Note: AOC means annual operating cost.

The explanation of the answer can now be given as follows:

The machine that should be selected can be determined by comparing the present worth (PW) of the 5 machines to one another which can be calculated using the following formula :

PW = Co + (A * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r)) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PW = Present worth of each machine

A = Annual operating cost of each machine

r = minimum attractive rate of return = 20%, or 0.20

n = useful life = 4

Using equation (1) and substituting the relevant values, we have:

PW of Machine 1 = -31000 + (-16000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.20))^4) / 0.20)) = -31000 + (-16000 * 2.58873456790123) = -31000 - 41,419.75 = -$72,419.75

PW of Machine 2 = -29000 + (-19300 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.20))^4) / 0.20)) = -29000 + (-19300 * 2.58873456790123) = -29000 - 49,962.58 = -$78,962.58

PW of Machine 3 = -34500 + (-17000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.20))^4) / 0.20)) = -34500 + (-17000 * 2.58873456790123) = -34,500 - 44,008.49 = -$78,508.49

PW of Machine 4 = -49000 + (-12200 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.20))^4) / 0.20)) = -49000 + (-12200 * 2.58873456790123) = -49,000 - 31,582.56 = -$80,582.56

PW of Machine 5 = -41000 + (-15500 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.20))^4) / 0.20)) = -41000 + (-15500 * 2.58873456790123) = -49,000 - 40,125.39 = -$81,125.39

Since the PW of Machine 1 of -$72,419.75 is the least negative from the above calculations, Machine 1 should therefore be selected.

3 0

3 years ago

Levelor Company's flexible budget shows $10,630 of overhead at 75% of capacity, which was the operating level achieved during Ma

r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

$1,589 favorable

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the controllable variance for the month was:

Using this formula

Overhead Controllable Variance =(Budgeted overhead per unit x standard number of units) - Actual overhead expense

Let plug in the formula

Controllable variance=(6,040*$2.10)-$11,095

Controllable variance=$12,684-$11,095

Controllable variance=$1,589 favorable

Therefore the controllable variance for the month was:$1,589 favorable

5 0

3 years ago

Riley Company promises to pay Janet Anderson or her estate $150,000 per year for the next 10 years, even if she leaves the compa

loris [4]

Answer:

The Answer is explanatory so it is given as under:

Explanation:

Part 1. At the start of the year:

The part of the salary includes $150,000 per year for the next 10 years and this must be recorded as an deferred compensation liability. All we have to do is to calculate the present value of the annual salary payments.

Present Value = Annual Payment * Annuity factor

And for Annuity factor we will use 5% rate of interest.

So

Annuity Factor = (1 - (1-r)^n) / r

Here

r = 5%

n = 10 years

Which means

Annuity Factor = (1 - (1 + 5%)^10) / 5% = 7.722

Hence

Present value = $150,000 * 7.722 = $1,158,260

So the journal entry would be as under:

Dr Deferred Compensation expense $1,158,260

Cr Deferred Compensation Liability $1,158,260

Part 2. At the end of the Year 1:

At the first year end, the annual payment of $1,158,260 will be discounted back by using the following formula:

Discounted Back Amount = Annual Amount * (1- (1+r)^n)

Remember for the first year n is 10, for second n is 9 and so on.

Discounted Back Amount = 150,000 x (1 - 0.614) = $57,913

Dr Deferred Compensation Expense $57,913

Cr Deferred Compensation Liability $57,913

Part 3. And when the first payment of the salary is made, the journal entry would be:

Dr Deferred compensation Liability $ 150,000

Cr Cash Account $150,000

Likewise we will till the year 10 and will record the part 2 and part 3 until at the end of the year 10, the whole of the deferred tax liability is reduced to zero.

The life insurance policy payments can not be offset against the deferred compensation liability because it will be accounted for as a different transaction and hence must not be treated as Riley desires.

So the Cash surrender value will be treated as an asset and annual increase in this asset would be treated as an income.

8 0

4 years ago