Answer:
Lorland
Zhangia
sandals
smoothies
Explanation:
A country should specialise goods for which it has a comparative advantage in its production.
A country should import goods for which it has no comparative advantage in its production.
A country has comparative advantage in production if it produces at a lower opportunity cost when compared to other countries.
Lorland
Opportunity cost in the production of one smoothie = 8/2 = 4
Opportunity cost in the production of one sandal = 2/8 = 0.25
Zhangia
Opportunity cost in the production of one smoothie = 5/1 = 5
Opportunity cost in the production of one sandal = 1/5 = 0.2
Zhangia has a comparative advantage inn the production of sandals and should specialise in the production of sandals while lorland has a comparative advantage in the production of smoothies specialise in the production of smoothies
Loriland should import sandals and export smoothies
Answer:
B. shifts rightward, and the point at which the PPF touches the good-X axis has to be something more than 40 units of good X and the point at which the PPF touches the good-Y axis has to be something more than 60 units
Explanation:
PPF is the graphical representation of two goods combinations which an economy can produce given resources & technology.
It is downward sloping because of two goods inverse relation given same resources & technology.
The points at which PPF touches both axis represents maximum amount of that axis good which can be produced by given resources & technology , Points on PPF reflect full efficient utilisation of resources. Points inside PPF reflect underutilisation of resources. Points outside PPF reflect unattainable combinations outside economy's productive capacity, given resources & technology unless either of them grow.
Resource increase usable for production of both goods: shifts the PPF outwards/ rightwards & the maximum potential production of both goods increases. PPF touching axis points increases from pervious at each axis - more than 40 at good X axis, more than 60 at Y axis.
Answer:
the payback period is 3.34 years
Explanation:
The computation of the payback period is as follow;
Given that
Year Cash flows Cumulative cash flows
0 -$40,000 $-40,000
1 $3,000 $3,000
2 $8,000 $11,000
3 $14,000 $25,000
4 $19,000 $44,000
5 $22,000 $66,000
6 $28,000 $94,000
Now the payback period is
= 3 years + ($40,000 - $25,000) ÷ $44,000
= 3 years + 0.34
= 3.34 years
Hence, the payback period is 3.34 years
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prior to administering the road test at the dmv the examiner will inspect fot your safety and cleanliness.
The statement is false.
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Inventoriable costs are often recorded as assets immediately they are incurred.
<h3>What is Inventoriable costs?</h3>
Inventoriable costs can be defined as those cost that has to do with the production of goods.
Inventoriable costs is an asset on the balance sheet based on the fact that the goods or product are often set ready in order to be sold at a specific period of time .
Examples of Inventoriable costs are:
- Direct labor
- Direct materials
Inconclusion Inventoriable costs are often recorded as assets immediately they are incurred.
Learn more about Inventoriable costs here:brainly.com/question/24868116