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3 years ago

How much is 1/17 worth in percent

2 answers:

8 0

First divide 1 by 17:
$\frac{1}{17}=0.058824$

Then multiply by 100 to give you the percentage:
$0.058824 * 100= 5.8824%$

ale4655 [162]3 years ago

7 0

$\frac{1}{17}\times100\%=\frac{100}{17}\%=\frac{85+15}{17}\%=\left(\frac{85}{17}+\frac{15}{17}\right)\%=5\frac{15}{17}\%$

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On Texas Avenue between University Drive and George Bush Drive, accidents occur according to a Poisson process at a rate of thre

Zarrin [17]

Answer:

(a) The probability is 0.6514

(b) The probability is 0.7769

Step-by-step explanation:

If the number of accidents occur according to a poisson process, the probability that x accidents occurs on a given day is:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}$

Where a is the mean number of accidents per day and t is the number of days.

So, for part (a), a is equal to 3/7 and t is equal to 1 day, because there is a rate of 3 accidents every 7 days.

Then, the probability that a given day has no accidents is calculated as:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{x}}{x!}$

$P(0)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{0}}{0!}=0.6514$

On the other hand the probability that February has at least one accident with a personal injury is calculated as:

P(x≥1)=1 - P(0)

Where P(0) is calculated as:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}$

Where a is equivalent to (3/7)(1/8) because that is the mean number of accidents with personal injury per day, and t is equal to 28 because 4 weeks has 28 days, so:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{x}}{x!}$

$P(0)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{0}}{0!}=0.2231$

Finally, P(x≥1) is:

P(x≥1) = 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769

3 0

3 years ago

Helpppp!!!!!!!!!!&:&:&:&::

Setler79 [48]

its the second one my dude

6 0

3 years ago

What is 20 7/8 in decimal form

ValentinkaMS [17]

Answer:

20.875

Step-by-step explanation:

divide it and this is what get.

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Write an algebraic rule for the rotation for s (-1,3) s' (-3,-1)

USPshnik [31]

That's the symmetric property

6 0

3 years ago

ASAP! Simplify -5 - square root -44

Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

$\boldmath-5-2i\sqrt{\boldmath11}$

Step-by-step explanation:

The not simplified form is $-5-\sqrt{-44}$

you know that $\sqrt{a\times b} = \sqrt{a} \times\sqrt{b}$ is true a and b are both positive or one of it is negative (not both of them).

You can write -44 as -1 × 4 × 11 inside square root.

So, $\sqrt{-44} = \sqrt{-1\times4\times11}=\sqrt{-1}\times\sqrt{4}\times\sqrt{11}=i\times2\times\sqrt{11}$ ( $\sqrt{4}=2$ )

$\therefore -5-\sqrt{-44} = -5-2i\sqrt{11}$

(NOTE : You must know that $\boldmath\sqrt{\boldmath-1}$ is written as $\boldsymbol i$ )

5 0

3 years ago