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STALIN [3.7K]
3 years ago
14

Please explain the difference between the assistant to the regional manager and the regional manager.

Business
1 answer:
DochEvi [55]3 years ago
6 0

Assisant regional manager is like the next step down from regional manager,An assistant regional manager is what Dwight shrute wants to be.An assistant to the regional manger is what Dwight Shrute really is.Does that make sense?

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​Bill, a local​ inventor, developed a diet pill that he believes will solve the obesity problem in the United States. Bill wants
dsp73

Answer:

Limited Liablity Company

Explanation:

A Limited liability Company is an independent legal entity.  It is a business structure whose owners are not liable for its liabilities. The obligations of a company are separate from those of its owners.

For Bill, a limited company will be the best form of partnership. Forming a company requires two or more people or entities coming together and establishing a new business. Bill and the drug company qualify to create a new company.  In the event of liability form sickness, Bill will be liable to the extent of his share contribution.

6 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of triaxial accelerometers wants to have $2,800,000 available 10 years from now so that a new product line can be
melomori [17]

Calculation of equal amount to deposit each year to get the future amount:


It is given that a manufacturer of triaxial accelerometers wants to have $2,800,000 available 10 years from now. So we can say that Future value is $2,800,000. We are also given that the deposit rate is 6% per year.

In order to find out the equal amount to deposit each year we need to calculate the annuity using the future value of annuity formula as follows;

Annuity = Future value of annuity / FV of $1 annuity

FV of $1 annuity (at 6% rate for 10 years) is 13.18079


Hence,

Annuity =2,800,000 / 13.18079 = 212,430.36

Hence , equal amount to deposit each year is $212,430.36










8 0
3 years ago
Glendale Paving currently has 120,000 shares of stock outstanding that sell for $54 per share. Assume no market imperfections or
emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

The new price will be $38.57.

Explanation:

The initial price of 120,000 outstanding shares is $54.

There are no market imperfections or taxes.

The firm declares a dividend of 40%.

The new share price will be

= Initial\ price\times(\frac{1}{1+ dividend} )

= 54\times(\frac{1}{1+0.4} )

= 54\times\frac{1}{1.4}

= 54\times0.71

= $38.57

5 0
3 years ago
Bob sells cookies only in packages of 5.
nexus9112 [7]

Answer:

2000 units

Explanation:

We apply the contribution margin concept in solving this.

The selling price is $5

The $1000 overhead cost represents fixed costs.

The $2.50 material cost is the variable cost.

The salary of $4000 is like profits.

Bob has to sell x items to meet the break-even and attain $4000

Break-even = Fixed cost/ contribution margin per unit

fixed cost =$1000

contribution margin = Selling price - variable cost

=$5 -$ 2.50

=$2.50

break-even in units = $1000/2.50

=400 units

To achievea $ 4000 salary , Bob has to sell 400 units + $4000/2.50

=400 unit +1600 units

=2000 units

3 0
3 years ago
Viger Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard mac
fenix001 [56]

Answer:

$2,260 Favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the variable overhead rate variance is shown below:

= Actual hours × actual rate - actual hours × standard rate

=  $51,200 - 8,100 hours × $6.60

= $51,200 - $53,260

= $2,260 favorable

The Actual total variable manufacturing overhead comprises of

= Actual hours × actual rate

= $51,200

Simply we put the figures on the given formula.

7 0
3 years ago
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