Answer:
Closing value of inventory = $357 for 21 units
Explanation:
As for the provided information we have,
Under FIFO method we know,
FIFO means First In First Out, under this the goods bought at earliest are sold earliest.
That means first opening inventory is sold, then the inventory purchased at the earliest.
Now we have,
Opening Inventory = 27 units @ $17 = $459
Purchases:
Aug 5 22 units @ $16 = $352
Aug 12 26 units @ $17 = $442
Provided 54 units are sold on Aug 15, that means, opening inventory of 27 units, 22 units bought on Aug 5, and 54 - 27 - 22 = 5 units from purchases on Aug 12.
Therefore, after sale units left = 26 - 5 = 21 units
Thus, closing value of inventory = $357 for 21 units
Answer:
Flashfone and Pictech
a. If Flashfone prices high, Pictech will make more profit if it chooses a (high,low) __low___ price, and if Flashfone prices low, Pictech will make more profit if it chooses a(high,low)___low____ price.
b. If Pictech prices high, Flashfone will make more profit if it chooses a(high,low)__low____price, and if Pictech prices low, Flashfone will make more profit if it chooses a (high,low) __low____ price.
c. Considering all of the information given, pricing high (is, is not) _is not_ a dominant strategy for both Flashfone and Pictech.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Pictech Pricing
High Low
Flashfone Pricing High 11, 11 2, 18
Low 18, 2 10, 10
b) A dominant strategy exists if Pictech or Flashfone would implement a particular strategy that benefits it no matter what the other firm does.
Answer:
c. governmental interventions
Answer:
The value of the intangible will remain at $350,000
Explanation:
The reason is that the International Accounting Standard IAS-36 says that once the impairment is recognized for the intangible assets it can not be reversed which means that the amount reported would be $350,000. The reason is that it is very rare that the asset gain its value and specially those which are intangible assets. Most of the management in the 1990s-2000 tried to recognize a gain on impairment which was unjustifiable to increase their profits for the period so the standard specifically didn't permitted gain on a previously impaired asset.
Answer:
$91 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead rate variance = (Standard variable overhead rate - Actual variable overhead rate) * Actual hour worked
Therefore, we have:
Variable overhead rate variance = ($8.00 - $7.90) * 910 = $91 favorable
Note: the variable overhead rate variance is said to be favorable becasue standard variable overhead rate is geater than the actual variable overhead rate.
