The correct answer is D. Why?
In that phase of solving he can not know that integers on each side will be equal or not.
Good luck!!!
Answer:
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
=
sec
2
(
x
)
Start on the left side.
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
Convert to sines and cosines.
Tap for more steps...
1
+
1
cos
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
Write
sin
2
(
x
)
as a fraction with denominator
1
.
1
+
1
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
sin
2
(
x
)
1
Combine.
1
+
1
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
1
Multiply
sin
(
x
)
2
by
1
.
1
+
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
1
Multiply
cos
(
x
)
2
by
1
.
1
+
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
Apply Pythagorean identity in reverse.
1
+
1
−
cos
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
Simplify.
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1
cos
2
(
x
)
Now consider the right side of the equation.
sec
2
(
x
)
Convert to sines and cosines.
Tap for more steps...
1
2
cos
2
(
x
)
One to any power is one.
1
cos
2
(
x
)
Because the two sides have been shown to be equivalent, the equation is an identity.
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
=
sec
2
(
x
)
is an identity
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: x=-3/4
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we know f(x)=6, we can set it equal to the equation.
6=9+4x [subtract 9 on both sides]
-3=4x [divide both sides by 4]
x=-3/4
Answer:
The mode is 10
Step-by-step explanation:
