Before the first behaviorist (Watson), Psychology was a part of philosophy.
A solar eclipse will be visible over a wide area of the north polar region
on Friday, March 20.
England is not in the path of totality, but it's close enough so that a large
part of the sun will be covered, and it will be a spectacular sight.
For Londoners, the eclipse begins Friday morning at 8:25 AM,when the
moon just begins to eat away at the sun's edge. It advances slowly, as more
and more of the sun disappears, and reaches maximum at 9:31 AM. Then
the obscured part of the sun begins to shrink, and the complete disk is
restored by the end of the eclipse at 10:41AM, after a period of 2 hours
16 minutes during which part of the sun appears to be missing.
The catch in observing the eclipse is:
<em><u>YOU MUST NOT LOOK AT THE SUN</u></em>.
Staring at the sun for a period of time can cause permanent damage to
your vision, even though <em><u>you don't feel it while it's happening</u></em>.
This is not a useful place to try and give you complete instructions or
suggestions for observing the sun over a period of hours. Please look
in your local newspaper, or search online for phrases like "safe eclipse
viewing".
I know i did part a correctly. heres what i did: momentum is conserved: m1 * u - m2 * u = m2 * v or (m1 - m2) * u = m2 * v Also, for an elastic head-on collision, we know that the relative velocity of approach = relative velocity of separation (from conservation of energy), or, for this problem, 2u = v Then (m1 - m2) * u = m2 * 2u m1 - m2 = 2 * m2 m1 = 3 * m2 m1 is the sphere that remained at rest (hence its absence from the RHS), so m2 = 0.3kg / 3 m2 = 0.1 kg b) this part confuses me, heres what i did (m1 - m2) * u = m2 * v (.3kg - .1kg)(2.0m/s) = .1kg * v .4 kg = .1 v v = 4 m/s What my teacher did: (.3g - .1g) * 2.0m/s = (.3g + .1g) * v I understand the left hand side but i dont get the right hand side. Why is m1 added to m2 when m1 is at rest which makes its v = zero?? v = +1.00m/s since the answer is positive, what does that mean? Also, if v was -1.00m/s what would that mean? thanks!
<span>Reference https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/elastic-collision-with-conservation-of-momentum-problem.651261...</span>
Answer:
<h3>
The area of second coil is ≅ 0.025 
</h3>
Explanation:
Given :
No. of turns in the first coil 
No. of turns in the second coil 
Area of first coil 
According to the law of electromagnetic induction,
Induced emf = 
Where 
magnetic flux.
Since given in question emf of both coil is same so we compare above equation.
Therefore, the area of second coil is ≅ 0.025
Answer:
5.791244495 KNm
Explanation:
The height h is given by, 
Potential energy, PE is given by
PE=mgh where m is mass of the woman, g is acceleration due to gravity whose value is taken as 
and h is already given hence substituting 77 Kg for m we obtain
PE=21.6567095 KNm
We also know that Kinetic energy is given by
where v is the velocity and substituting v for 20.3 we obtain
KE=15.865465 KNm
Friction work is the difference between PE and KE hence
Friction work=21.6567095 KNm-15865.465 Nm=5.791244495 KNm
