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juin [17]
4 years ago
9

Why is the Munich Pact an example of appeasment

History
2 answers:
Alla [95]4 years ago
7 0
It was a pact with Germany where they agreed to give them Czechoslovakia in exchange to not start a war.
professor190 [17]4 years ago
4 0
Appeasement" has become a bad word since the Munich Agreement<span>  in 1938 and its immediate after effects to the point that it regarded as a unique precedent of modern politics gone wrong. In the strict sense we be be hard pressed to find a similar case, because politics since "Munich" is struggling to prevent the error</span>
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