Why is the Munich Pact an example of appeasment

History

2 answers:

Alla [95]3 years ago

7 0

It was a pact with Germany where they agreed to give them Czechoslovakia in exchange to not start a war.

professor190 [17]3 years ago

4 0

Appeasement" has become a bad word since the Munich Agreement<span> in 1938 and its immediate after effects to the point that it regarded as a unique precedent of modern politics gone wrong. In the strict sense we be be hard pressed to find a similar case, because politics since "Munich" is struggling to prevent the error</span>

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