Answer:
Q is 98
Explanation:
Marginal (average) cost (including opportunity cost) = $8 + $2 = $10
Profit is maximized when MR = MC = 10.
P = 402 - 2Q
Total revenue (TR) = P x Q = 402Q - 2Q^2
MR = dTR/dQ = 402 - 4Q
Equating with MC,
402 - 4Q = 10
4Q = 392
Q = 98
It is a statement of the owners equity. I hope this helps :)
We see that for every 8 sandwiches that the customer needs, he will pay for 5. Lets see how many groups of 8 sandwiches the order of 675 sandwiches contains. If we do Euclidean Division we see that there are 84 groups of 8 and that three sandwiches are the remainder. 675/8=84.375; Hence we have 84 groups and 0.375*8=3 sandwiches that remain. Thus, the customer would play for 84*5= 420 sandwiches if he had ordered 84 groups of 8 (namely 672 sandwiches). Since he needs another 3 sandwiches and there is no promotional offer for those, he will have to pay in total for 423 sandwiches. It is important to not divide the total number by 8 and then multiply it by 5; the customer gets the free sandwiches only if he completes an offer of 5 sandwiches, thus we have to group the sandwiches in octads and deal with the remainder separately.
Hacking. Hope this helps you out today!
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.