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BabaBlast [244]
4 years ago
7

Whats the most easiest way to find the mean...of a dot plot

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leona [35]4 years ago
8 0

"Easiest" depends on several factors, including your understanding of what you're trying to do and of how the mean is calculated.

The most straight-forward way is to

  1. multiply the value of a column by the number of dots in that column
  2. add the products
  3. divide by the total number of dots

One of my favorite ways is this.

  1. Choose a value near the middle of the plot and call it the (provisional) mean. Often, I will choose a value that has the most dots, or that has dots fairly symmetrically distributed around it.
  2. Match dots that are symmetrically located around that mean and cross them off. That is, for every dot that is 1 unit above the (provisional) mean, cross off it and a dot that is 1 unit below the (provisional) mean. (With some experience, you can recognize non-symmetrical dots that can cancel. For example, one that is +2 and one that is +3 together will cancel one that is -5.)
  3. For the dots left over, multiply the number of dots by their distance from the (provisional) mean, and add the products. Most likely, some will be positive, some will be negative.
  4. Divide the total from the previous step by the total number of dots. Add that (signed) result to the provisional mean. This gives the true mean.

If the distribution is reasonably symmetrical, this second method gives you fewer (and smaller) products to compute, and you can probably do them in your head.

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andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

x= -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplifying 5x + 45 = 35 Reorder the terms: 45 + 5x = 35 Solving 45 + 5x = 35 Solving for variable 'x'. Move all terms containing x to the left, all other terms to the right. Add '-45' to each side of the equation. 45 + -45 + 5x = 35 + -45 Combine like terms: 45 + -45 = 0 0 + 5x = 35 + -45 5x = 35 + -45 Combine like terms: 35 + -45 = -10 5x = -10 Divide each side by '5'. x = -2 Simplifying x = -2

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Find ? in each case.
user100 [1]

Answer:

a) For this case we have that n = 30 and p =1/6

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=1/6)

b)  For this case we have that n = 10 and p =1/100

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=1/100)

c)  For this case we have that n = 20 and p =0.3

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.3)      

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Assuming the following question : "For each of the following binomial random variables specify n and p"  

Solution to the problem

a. A fair die is rolled 30 times. X = number of times a 6 is rolled.

For this case we have that n = 30 and p =1/6

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=1/6)

b. A company puts a game card in each box of cereal and 1/100 of them are winners. You buy ten boxes of cereal, and X = number of times you win.

For this case we have that n = 10 and p =1/100

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=1/100)

c. Jack likes to play computer solitaire and wins about 30% of the time. X = number of games he wins out of his next 20 games.

For this case we have that n = 20 and p =0.3

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.3)

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24% percent of a number is what fraction of that number?
aniked [119]

Answer:

\frac{6}{25}

4 0
3 years ago
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