Answer:
x = 8
x = -10
Step-by-step explanation:
I think it’s C not sure tho
The reason the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral is; The C's cancel each other out as desired.
<h3>How to represent Integrals?</h3>
Let us say we want to estimate the definite integral;
I = 
Now, for any C, f(x) + C is an antiderivative of f′(x).
From fundamental theorem of Calculus, we can say that;
where Ф(x) is any antiderivative of f'(x). Thus, Ф(x) = f(x) + C would not work because the C's will cancel each other.
Read more about Integrals at; brainly.com/question/22008756
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(tan²(<em>θ</em>) cos²(<em>θ</em>) - 1) / (1 + cos(2<em>θ</em>))
Recall that
tan(<em>θ</em>) = sin(<em>θ</em>) / cos(<em>θ</em>)
so cos²(<em>θ</em>) cancels with the cos²(<em>θ</em>) in the tan²(<em>θ</em>) term:
(sin²(<em>θ</em>) - 1) / (1 + cos(2<em>θ</em>))
Recall the double angle identity for cosine,
cos(2<em>θ</em>) = 2 cos²(<em>θ</em>) - 1
so the 1 in the denominator also vanishes:
(sin²(<em>θ</em>) - 1) / (2 cos²(<em>θ</em>))
Recall the Pythagorean identity,
cos²(<em>θ</em>) + sin²(<em>θ</em>) = 1
which means
sin²(<em>θ</em>) - 1 = -cos²(<em>θ</em>):
-cos²(<em>θ</em>) / (2 cos²(<em>θ</em>))
Cancel the cos²(<em>θ</em>) terms to end up with
(tan²(<em>θ</em>) cos²(<em>θ</em>) - 1) / (1 + cos(2<em>θ</em>)) = -1/2
Answer:$133.455
Step-by-step explanation:
