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2 years ago

Solve for u . 3u+11=41

2 answers:

5 0

U is 10. If you subtract 11 first to get the variable and it's coefficient on its own, you see that 3u=30. To get the u on its own, you divide both sides by three. This gives you u=10

Hunter-Best [27]2 years ago

3 0

3u+11=41
-11 -11
3u=30
÷3 ÷3
u=10

I hope it helps!

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stich3 [128]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you should be subtract each other by 20x to transfer from side to another side.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the value of x in the equation 6(x +11)= -300?

Kay [80]

Answer:

-61

Step-by-step explanation:

We use the distributive property to distribute 6 to both x and 11. This gives 6x+66=-300. Subtracting both sides by 66 gives 6x=-366. Dividing both sides gives x=-61.

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2 years ago

Suppose that a box contains r red balls and w white balls. Suppose also that balls are drawn from the box one at a time, at rand

dybincka [34]

Answer: Part a) $P(a)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

part b) $P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability is calculated as follows:

We have proability of any event E = $P(E)=\frac{Favourablecases}{TotalCases}$

For part a)

Probability that a red ball is drawn in first attempt = $P(E_{1})=\frac{r}{r+w}$

Probability that a red ball is drawn in second attempt= $P(E_{2})=\frac{r-1}{r+w-1}$

Probability that a red ball is drawn in third attempt = $P(E_{3})=\frac{r-2}{r+w-1}$

Generalising this result

Probability that a red ball is drawn in [tex}i^{th}[/tex] attempt = $P(E_{i})=\frac{r-i}{r+w-i}$

Thus the probability that events $E_{1},E_{2}....E_{i}$ occur in succession is

$P(E)=P(E_{1})\times P(E_{2})\times P(E_{3})\times ...$

Thus $P(E)$ = $\frac{r}{r+w}\times \frac{r-1}{r+w-1}\times \frac{r-2}{r+w-2}\times ...\times \frac{1}{w}\\\\P(E)=\frac{r!}{(r+w)!}\times (w-1)!$

Thus our probability becomes

$P(E)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

Part b)

The event " r red balls are drawn before 2 whites are drawn" can happen in 2 ways

1) 'r' red balls are drawn before 2 white balls are drawn with probability same as calculated for part a.

2) exactly 1 white ball is drawn in between 'r' draws then a red ball again at $(r+1)^{th}$ draw

We have to calculate probability of part 2 as we have already calculated probability of part 1.

For part 2 we have to figure out how many ways are there to draw a white ball among (r) red balls which is obtained by permutations of 1 white ball among (r) red balls which equals $\binom{r}{r-1}$