-Least to greatest-
<h2>
-8 -5 -1 0 1 2 3</h2>
The numbers that have a negative sign in front of them come first because they are less than 0. The other numbers can be ordered by what comes first. For example, 3 is bigger than 1 so 3 would come after 1.
A and D
Explanation: I did this problem in khan academy
Answer:
can't be determined
Step-by-step explanation:
we would need to know the total number of bars/chips he brought
So it tells us that g(3) = -5 and g'(x) = x^2 + 7.
So g(3) = -5 is the point (3, -5)
Using linear approximation
g(2.99) is the point (2.99, g(3) + g'(3)*(2.99-3))
now we just need to simplify that
(2.99, -5 + (16)*(-.01)) which is (2.99, -5 + -.16) which is (2.99, -5.16)
So g(2.99) = -5.16
Doing the same thing for the other g(3.01)
(3.01, g(3) + g'(3)*(3.01-3))
(3.01, -5 + 16*.01) which is (3.01, -4.84)
So g(3.01) = -4.84
So we have our linear approximation for the two.
If you wanted to, you could check your answer by finding g(x). Since you know g'(x), take the antiderivative and we will get
g(x) = 1/3x^3 + 7x + C
Since we know g(3) = -5, we can use that to solve for C
1/3(3)^3 + 7(3) + C = -5 and we find that C = -35
so that means g(x) = (x^3)/3 + 7x - 35
So just to check our linear approximations use that to find g(2.99) and g(3.01)
g(2.99) = -5.1597
g(3.01) = -4.8397
So as you can see, using the linear approximation we got our answers as
g(2.99) = -5.16
g(3.01) = -4.84
which are both really close to the actual answer. Not a bad method if you ever need to use it.
Answer:
1 lap in 8/10 (4/5) of a minute
Answer is B, 8/10 minute!
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Step-by-step explanation:
