I think its called an investment.
Insufficient funds and irregular signatures are reasons why a cheque may not be cleared in time.
<h3>What is a Cheque?</h3>
This can be defined as a written, dated, and signed instrument which directs a bank to pay a specific sum of money to the bearer.
Insufficient funds and irregular signatures may delay the clearing of cheque which is a result of human error and could lead to returning it.
Read more about Cheque here brainly.com/question/24555580
Answer:
The present value of the dividends to be paid out over the next six years if the required rate of return is 15 percent is $6.57
Explanation:
Solution:
Given that
The present value =∑ ⁿ t=1 cf/ (1 +r)t
where cf= cash flow
r =the required rate of return
t = the number of years
Now
The present value will be:
cf₁/(1+r)^1 + cf₂/(1 +)^2 + cf₃/(1+r)3 + cf₄/(1 +r)^4) + cf₅/(1 +r)^5 + cf₆/(1+r)^6
Hence,
cf₁, cf₂ cf₃ = 0 as the firm does not expect to pay dividend in the next three years
Note: Kindly find an attached document of the part of the solution to this given question
Answer:
Missing word <em>"a. What must the six-month risk-free rate be in Japan"</em>
<em />
a. Spot rate = 1 US $ = 1.2377 Aus.dollar
Forward rate = 1 US $ = 1.2356 Aus.dollar
<u>1.2356</u> = <u>(1 + i Ad)</u>
1.2377 (1 + 0.05)
0.9983 * (1.05) = 1 + i.Ad
1.048215 = 1 + i.Ad
i.Ad = 1.048215 - 1
i.Ad = 0.048215
i.Ad = 4.82%
b. Spot rate = 1 US $ = 100.3300 Japan Yen
Forward rate = 1 US $ = 100.0500 Japan Yen
<u>100.0500</u> = <u>(1 + i Ad)</u>
100.3300 (1 + 0.05)
0.9972 * (1.05) = 1 + i.Ad
1.04706 = 1 + i.Ad
i.Ad = 1.04706 - 1
i.Ad = 0.04706
i.Ad = 4.71%