Answer: 402 years
Explanation:
Debt is $15,000,000,000,000
Payment per second $1,183
Time taken to pay off = 15,000,000,000,000/1,183
= 12,679,628,064 seconds
Seconds in a year = 60 secs * 60 mins * 24 hours * 365 days
= 31,536,000 secs
Time taken in years = 12,679,628,064/ 31,536,000
= 402 years
Answer:
= $877.32
Explanation:
<em>The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).</em>
<em>Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV</em>
The value of bond for Jasper Inc can be worked out as follows:
Step 1
<em>PV of interest payments</em>
<em>Semi annul interest paymen</em>t
= 4.5% × 1000 × 1/2
= 22.5
<em>Semi-annual yield</em> = 5.6/2 = 2.8% per six months
<em>Total period to maturity (in months)</em>
= (2 × 19) = 38 periods <em> (Note it was sold a year ago)</em>
<em>PV of interest = </em>
<em> </em>22.5 × (1- (1+0.028)^(-38)/0.028)
= 22.5 ×23.20871226
= 522.196
Step 2
<em>PV of Redemption Value</em>
= 1,000 × (1.056)^(-19)
= 355.128
<em>Price of bond</em>
= 522.19 + 355.12
= $877.32
<em />
Answer:
$27,333.33
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of income reported is shown below:
= Provided services to the customer + Payment received × number of months ÷ given number of months
= $25,000 + $12,000 × 7 months ÷ 36 months
= $25,000 + $2,333.33
= $27,333.33
The seven months is calculated from the June 1 to December 31. We assume the books are closed on December 31
Answer:
Percentage of total return on Investment = <em>ROI = 17% </em>
Explanation:
Let’s
ROI = Return on Investment = ?
D = Dividends = $15
CGD = Capital Gain Distributions = $35
CGS = Capital Gain on Sale = $120
SP = Shares Purchased = 100
CS = Cost per share = $10.00
ROI = (D + CGD + CGS) / (SP * CS)
ROI = ($15 + $35 + $120) / (100 * $10.00)
ROI = 170 / 1,000
ROI = 0.17
Percentage: 0.170 x 100%
<em>ROI = 17% </em>
The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Using this formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]
Where:
Stock A Expected Return (Wa) =16%
Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%
Stock B Expected Return (Wb)= 12%
Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%
Let plug in the formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%
Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Learn more here:
brainly.com/question/21273560