For the answer to the question above asking w<span>hy do we need to integrate probabilities in statistics?
Well, i</span>ntegration is used very very often in theoretical statistics. Transformation relates to the result that data values that are modelled as being random variables from any given continuous distribution can be converted to random variables having a standard uniform distribution. So, we need to see other possibilities by combining<span> (one thing) with another.</span>
99.1
x0.16
6(1)=6
6(9)=54. Put down the 4 and carry the 5.
6(9)=54+5= 59.
You work in reverse, so our last number should be first and our first number last. So the first number is: 5946
Our next row, we put down a 0 and then continue.
1(1)=1
1(9)=9
1(1)=9
Our second number is 9910.
Add the two: 5946+9910=15856
Count the number lf decimal places. In this case, three. Move the decimal 3 places left: 15.856
I always double check using a calculator.
**Sorry the methods it's written out in isn't better, but I can't upload pictures. Hope it helps.
Answer:
Inverse variation k=4
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
A relationship between two variables, x, and y, represent an inverse variation if it can be expressed in the form
or 
In this problem
The graph represent a inverse variation
Because
if x increases ----> y decreases
if x decreases ----> y increases
Find the value of k
we have that
For x=2, y=2 -----> see the graph
substitute
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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Answer:
-915
Step-by-step explanation: