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Elan Coil [88]
3 years ago
12

Tedd E. Bear has an annual salary of $48,000 with no other loans outstanding. Using the 25% guideline from class and with a 20%

down payment, how expensive of a home can Tedd purchase using a 4%, 30 year mortgage
Business
1 answer:
Kobotan [32]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The total loan value would be of $261,825

Explanation:

In order to calculate how expensive of a home can Tedd purchase using a 4%, 30 year mortgage we would have to calculate first the amount of annual payments as follows:

amount of annual payments = $48,000*0.25 = $12,000

PMT = 12,000/12 = 1000

FV = 0

rate = 4%/12

N = 30*12

Hence, use FV function in Excel  amount after down payment = $209,461.24

this represents 80% of the loan , so total loan value = $209,461.24/0.8 = $261,825

The total loan value would be of $261,825

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Let RUS be the annual risk free rate in the United States, RUK be the risk free rate in the United Kingdom, F be the futures pri
jeka57 [31]

Answer:

If RUS > RUK, then E < F ( C )

Explanation:

RUS = annual risk free rate in united states

RUK = annual risk free rate in United kingdom

F = futures price of $/BP  for 1 year

E = spot exchange rate for $/BP

To get a higher the future price

this conditions must be met

The annual risk free rate of the united states must be higher than the annual risk free rate of the united kingdom. if this condition is met then the the British pound will have a forward premium ( F ) > ( E )

3 0
3 years ago
A few years ago, Toyota found that consumers wanted cars to last longer and be more environmentally friendly. GM, however, enjoy
Allushta [10]

Answer:

General Motors had more of a Production Orientation

Explanation:

The company which is production oriented focuses on the production and company's production processes and runs campaigns to sell the product produced or the product they are producing. General motors produced the products which it is good in producing the products and won the market against great giants like Ford, Toyota and German auto companies. Whereas Toyota was developing market which is newly born and started pricing their products on the basis of products that were desired (environmentally friendly products) and lost the market because of lost of market share as this market was in introduction phase and Toyota left a market which was at maturity. Then it is obvious that Toyota has revenue losses due to leaving its concentration and marketing of products to mature market and was busy in developing environmentally free products market in US.

7 0
2 years ago
Parul is a manager who is preparing to send a memo to members of her team. What will best help her evaluate the memo before she
Oxana [17]

The Fair test is the best tool to help her evaluate the memo before she sends it.

<h3>What is FAIR test?</h3>

The term "FAIR" test entails Facts, Access, Impacts and Respect.

The FAIR test will help the user to:

  • ensure that the communication is fact-based
  • sender's motives is well channeled
  • reasoning are granted access
  • how well respect is shown to the receivers.

In conclusion, the Fair test is the best tool to help her evaluate the memo before she sends it.

Read more about FAIR test

<em>brainly.com/question/6791607</em>

6 0
2 years ago
Managers are trying to decide on which variables to use in segmenting and selecting a target audience for marketing communicatio
JulsSmile [24]

Answer: Senior citizens (65 years and older) = psychographic.

Explanation:

Psychographic segmentation is simply segmentation that is based on the psychological characteristics of the consumer such as lifestyles, personality, social class etc while Demographics is the study based on factors like sex, age, and race.

Base on the above explanation, "Senior citizens (65 years and older) = psychographic" is the answer. It should be noted that this is demographic related and not psychological.

7 0
3 years ago
Under which set of circumstances would it not be appropriate to assume the value the noncontrolling shares is the same as the co
BaLLatris [955]

Answer:

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

NCI stands for the Non-controlling interest which also called as the minority interest, it is defined as the position of ownership where the shareholder owns outstanding shares that is less than 50% and has no control on the  decisions.

Under the situation where the active prices for the shares are not acquired by the acquirer states a different value, it is not appropriate to assume the value of the non-controlling shares same as of the controlling shares.

7 0
2 years ago
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