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rosijanka [135]
3 years ago
6

Round to the nearest place 4,551,999

Mathematics
2 answers:
dmitriy555 [2]3 years ago
6 0
1000 Is Nearer To 999 Then 900, So This Number Rounds To 
4,552,000
enyata [817]3 years ago
3 0
Ya have to round it to the nearest hundred, so that would be 2 thousand.
so it's 4,552,000
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HELP PLEASE IM BEGGING YOU
andriy [413]

Answer:

75th term in the sequence is 227.

Step-by-step explanation:

75 term of A.P is

a_75= a+ (n-1)d

Given series is 5,8,11,14.

hence a= 5 d= 8-5 = 3 , a_75.

a_75 = 5+(75-1)3

= 5+ (74)3

= 5 +(222)

= 227

6 0
2 years ago
How would 3,050,000 be expressed in scientific notation?
sergejj [24]
Expressed in scientific notation  the answer would be 3.05 X 10^6
5 0
3 years ago
Ella and Margaret were at a carnival. They each got a ticket for the carousel. Ella got a jumbo pretzel, and Margaret got a snow
Nikolay [14]
Carousel : 2 x $4 = $8
Snow cone:  $4.50
             --------------------
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The total amount they pay:  $5 + $12.75 = $17.75
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Jumbo pretzel ticket costs $5.25

5 0
3 years ago
ABCD is a Rhombus with side length 10 cm. Angle ADC = 40. DAC is a sector of a circle with center D. BAC is a sector of a circle
Natasha_Volkova [10]

The value of the <em>shaded</em> area is approximately 34.907 square centimeters.

<h3>How to calculate the area between a rhombus and a circle</h3>

According to the description in statement we prepared a representation of the figure in the image attached below. The <em>shaded</em> area is equal to the area of the <em>circle</em> sector (A), in square centimeters:

A = \frac{\theta\cdot \pi \cdot R^{2}}{360} (1)

Where:

  • R - Length of the radius, in centimeters.
  • \theta - Angle of circle arc, in degrees.

If we know that \theta = 40^{\circ} and R = 10\,cm, then the area of the circle is:

A = \frac{(40)\cdot \pi\cdot (10\,cm)^{2}}{360}

A\approx 34.907\,cm^{2}

The value of the <em>shaded</em> area is approximately 34.907 square centimeters. \blacksquare

To learn more on areas, we kindly invite to check this verified question: brainly.com/question/16151549

7 0
2 years ago
NCr/nPr=r!<br><br> give proof.
Sergio [31]
<span>It's 1/r! 

nCr = n! / r!(n-r)! 
nPr = n! / (n-r)! 

If you divide the two you'd have: 

n! / r! (n-r)! * (n-r)! / n! = 1/r!

I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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