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Paladinen [302]
3 years ago
6

A two-year bond with par value $1,000 making annual coupon payments of $99 is priced at $1,000.

Business
1 answer:
iVinArrow [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(a) 9.9%

(b)  10.09%

The further explanation is given below.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Coupon payment

=  $99

Price

=  $1,000

(a)

The Yield to maturity (YTM) will be:

= \frac{C+\frac{F-P}{n} }{\frac{F+P}{2} }

where,

C = Coupon payment

P = Price

n = years to maturity

F = Face value

On putting the estimated values is the above formula, we get

⇒  99+\frac{0}{1000}

⇒  .099

⇒  9.9%

(b)

Although the 1st year coupon was indeed reinvested outside an interest rate of r%, cumulative money raised will indeed be made at the end of 2nd year.  

= [99\times (1 + r)] + 1,099

Came to the realization compound YTM is therefore a function of r, as is shown throughout the table below:

Rate (r)             Total proceeds         Realized YTM ((\frac{proceeds}{1000} )^{.5} - 1)

7.9%                      1205.8                                   9.8%

9.9%                             1207.8                                   9.9%

11.9%                      1209.8                                  9.99%

Now,

Overall proceeds realized YTM:

= \frac{proceeds}{1000} -18 \ percent \ 1,\frac{2081208}{1000} - 1

= 0.0991

= 9.91 \ percent \ 10 \ percent \ 1,\frac{2101210}{1000}- 1

= 0.1000

= 10.00 \ percent \ 12 \ percent \ 1,\frac{2121212}{1000}-1

= 0.1009

= 10.09%

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Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry to record the given transaction is as follows

Retained earning Dr (0.30 million × $54) $16.2 million

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The computation of the shares after declaring the dividend is

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On August 5, 2021, Blossom Furniture shipped 50 dining sets on consignment to Furniture Outlet, Inc. The cost of each dining set
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Answer:

$15,960

Explanation:

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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For five returns of 5% ,21%, -12%, 7%, and -6%:

A=\frac{0.05+0.21-0.12+0.07-0.06}{5}\\ A=0.03=3\%

The geometric average of 'n' returns is given by:

G=\sqrt[n]{(1+r_1)*(1+r_2)*...*(1+r_n)}-1

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= Service Cost + Interest expense - Expected return on plan assets +  Amortization of prior service cost + Amortization of net loss

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