Answer:
You would get tails 75 times, or 75:200
Step-by-step explanation:
5:8 = x:200
multiply 8 by 25 to get 200
multiply 5 by 25 to get x (125)
Probability to get heads is 125 so subtract 200 by 125
200 - 125 = 75
1. Balance after 1 year with simple interest= 600 + (2.5 x 12) = 600 + 30 = $630
2. Balance after 1 year with compounded interest = P ( 1 + 

= 600 ( 1 + 
= 600 (1.0511) = $630.66 = approx. $630
Answer:
66.67%
Step-by-step explanation:

The residual value, which is the farthest from the line of best fit for the table which shows points and their residual values, is 0.7.
<h3>What is residual value?</h3>
The residual value is the estimated value which is calculated for the end of the lease terms for a fixed asset.
Points and their residual values are shown in the table. A 3-column table with 5 rows.
- x 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
- y 2, 3.5, 5, 6.1, 8.
- Residual Value -0.4, 0.7, -0.2, -0.6 0
The simple regression line can be represented as,

Here α is the constant, β is the slope and <em>e </em>is the residue.
The point which is farthest from the best fit of the line is 3.5. At y=3.5, the value of residue is 0.7.
Thus, the residual value, which is the farthest from the line of best fit for the table which shows points and their residual values, is 0.7.
Learn more about the residual value here;
brainly.com/question/1168961
x over 5 becuase the top and bottom are both divisible by 8 so you do that.