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Georgia [21]
3 years ago
7

What number is 32% of 1000

Mathematics
1 answer:
podryga [215]3 years ago
4 0
The answer is 320.00 why because you just multiply .32 times 1000 and you get your answer just trying to give you a tip so you can do any problem
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Increase 250ml by 85%
vampirchik [111]
The easiest way to do a problem like this is to think about the fact that you have 100% and you want to add another 85%.
This is 185% of the quantity that you have.
Multiply 250 by 185% or 1.85.
250 * 1.85 = 462.5 ml
7 0
3 years ago
Someone please help me
exis [7]
V = 1/3 l h w

V = 1/3 (12)(15)(9)
V= = 540

answer 540 m^3
8 0
3 years ago
Question 9 - (3 marks available)
finlep [7]

Answer: a) 1,600

              b) 35,000

              c) 120,000

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

First, round each number to one significant digit (the first digit).

Then multiply them.

a) 17   --> rounds to 20

  82   --> rounds to 80

                                       20 x 80 = 2 x 8 with two zeros

                                                     = 1 6 0 0

b) 54   --> rounds to 50

  671   --> rounds to 700

                                       50 x 700 = 5 x 7 with three zeros

                                                       = 3 5 0 0 0

c) 207   --> rounds to 200

  643   --> rounds to 600

                                       200 x 600 = 2 x 6 with four zeros

                                                          = 1 2 0 0 0 0

6 0
3 years ago
Please help! I’ve tried every site and nothing has helped<br><br><br>The answer is 11.8
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

11.8%

Step-by-step explanation:

Here in this question, we want to find the probability of no success in the binomial experiment for 6 trials.

Let p = probability of success = 30% = 30/100 = 0.3

q = probability of failure = 1-p = 1-0.3 = 0.7

Now to calculate the probability, we shall need to use the Bernoulli approximation of the binomial theorem.

That would be;

P(X = 0) = 6C0 p^0 q^6

6C0 is pronounced six combination zero

= 6 * 0.3^0 * 0.7^6 = 1 * 1 * 0.117649 = 0.117649

This is approximately 0.1176

If we convert this to percentage we have 11.76%

But we want our answer rounded to the nearest tenth of a percent and that is 11.8%

8 0
3 years ago
Someone help me with this !!!
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

150°

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the individual angle of a REGULAR dodecagon (which means that all sides are equal), you'd use the equation I(individual angle)= (n-2)×180/n

N is number of sides. The number of sides on a dodecagon is 12. So, substitute N for 12

I= (12-2)×180/12 which simplifies to 10×180/12

10×180= 1800

1800/12 = 150

so, an individual interior angle of a dodecagon is 150°

6 0
3 years ago
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