3 years ago

I need the answer for one and two and you get that from the steps

Mathematics

1 answer:

Zinaida [17]3 years ago

4 0

I hope you enjoy this explanation

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Temka [501]

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It diverges.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the inetegral: $\int\limits^{\infty}_2 \frac{1}{x} (\ln x)^2 dx$

$\int\limits^{\infty}_2 \frac{1}{x} (\ln x)^2 dx=\int\limits^{\infty}_2 (\ln x)^2 d(\ln x)=\\\\=\lim_{t \to \infty} \int\limits^t_2 (\ln x)^2d(\ln x)=\lim_{t \to \infty} \frac{(\ln t)^3}{3} |^t_2=\infty-\frac{(\ln 2)^3}{3} =\infty$

So it is divergent.

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4 years ago

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qwelly [4]

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