Step-by-step answer:
We are looking at the coefficient of the 22nd term of (x+y)^25.
Following the sequence, first term is x^0y^25, second term is x^1y^24, third term is x^2y^23...and so on, 22nd term is x^21y^4.
The twenty-second term of (x+y)^25 is given by the binomial theorem as
( 25!/(21!4!) ) x^21*y^4
=25*24*23*22/4! x^21y^4
= 12650 x^21 y^4
The coefficient required is therefore 12650, for a binomial with unit valued coefficients.
For other binomials, substitute the values for x and y and expand accordingly.
Question would have been more clearly stated if the actual binomial was given, as commented above.
1/2 ÷10=1/20 because you multiply the bottoms
3÷1/6= 18 because it is the same as 3×6
There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Hey there! :D
Since she walks 3/4 a mile a day, we can multiply that by 4.
3/4= .75
4*.75= 3
She walked 3 miles in 4 days.
I hope this helps!
~kaikers
