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2 years ago

7

9. Lula bought new furniture on her credit card for $993. If she pays it off in 6 months there will be no interest on her purcha

se. How much will her payments be if evenly distributed over 6 months?

1 answer:

nata0808 [166]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

$165.50 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

$993 / 6 = $165.50

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Please help with this question!!!!

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Answer:

120 units²

Step-by-step explanation:

The area can be found using the formula for the area of a triangle:

A = 1/2bh

Since the sides of length 10 and 24 are at right angles, either can be considered to be the base and the other the height. Then the area is ...

A = 1/2·(10 units)·(24 units) = 120 units²

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3 years ago

In the United States, voters who are neither Democrat nor Republican are called Independent. It is believed that 11% of voters a

Radda [10]

Answer:

a) 0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

b) 0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

c) 0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each people, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are independent, or they are not. For each person asked, the probability of them being Independent voters is the same. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

It is believed that 11% of voters are Independent.

This means that $p = 0.11$

A survey asked 33 people to identify themselves as Democrat, Republican, or Independent.

This means that $n = 33$

A. What is the probability that none of the people are Independent?

This is P(X = 0). So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

B. What is the probability that fewer than 6 are Independent?

This is

$P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)$

So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X = 2) = C_{33,2}.(0.11)^{2}.(0.89)^{31} = 0.1724$

$P(X = 3) = C_{33,3}.(0.11)^{3}.(0.89)^{30} = 0.2202$

$P(X = 4) = C_{33,4}.(0.11)^{4}.(0.89)^{29} = 0.2041$

$P(X = 5) = C_{33,5}.(0.11)^{5}.(0.89)^{28} = 0.1463$

$P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 + 0.1724 + 0.2202 + 0.2041 + 0.1463 = 0.8516$

0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

C. What is the probability that more than 2 people are Independent?

This is:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X < 2) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 = 0.1086$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.1086 = 0.8914$

0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

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2 years ago

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Answer:

15625

Step-by-step explanation:

your method is correct

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