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Goryan [66]
3 years ago
8

Carla is renting a canoe. It’s cost $80 for 2 hours and $160 for 4 hours. What is the rate per hour?

Mathematics
2 answers:
patriot [66]3 years ago
8 0
<span>Carla is renting a canoe. It’s cost $80 for 2 hours and $160 for 4 hours. What is the rate per hour?

If we want to get a full understanding of this question we must use the information given.

If renting the canoe cost $80 per 2 hours, to get 1 hour we must divide $80 by 2.

</span>\frac{80}{2}=40

or $40

We can also use $160 and 4 hours

\frac{160}{4}=40

or $40

So the rate per hour is $40

Reptile [31]3 years ago
8 0

<span>Hello there Emilyrod100740! 

In order to find the rate per hour, we must divide the costs by the number of hours.

For 2 hours - $80 divided by 2 hours = 40 

For 4 hours - $160 divided by 4 hours = 40

This shows that the rate per hour is $40. 
</span>
I hope this helps! -Wajiha
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A certain brand of dinnerware set comes in three colors: red, white, and blue. Twenty percent of customers order the red set, 45
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a) 0.20

b) 0.45

c) 0.65

d) Yes

e) Yes

f) Z = X + Y (except when X = 1 and Y = 1)

This is because the successes of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't. X and Y cannot both be 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of a red set = 20% = 0.20

Probability of a white set = 45% = 0.45

Probability of a blue set = 35% = 0.35

Probability of the single set being a red or white set = 20% + 45% = 65% = 0.65

P(X=1) = 0.20, P(X=0) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.80

P(Y=1) = 0.45, P(Y=0) = 1 - 0.45 = 0.55

P(Z=1) = 0.65, P(Z=0) = 1 - 0.65 = 0.35

a) pX = P(X=1) = 0.20

b) pY = P(Y=1) = 0.45

c) pZ = P(Z=1) = 0.65

d) Since only one order is being considered at a time, it isn't possible to order red & white set in a single set, hence, both X and Y cannot both be successes (equal to 1) at the same time. But they can both be failures (both equal to 0) if a blue set is ordered. The successes of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't

e) Is pZ = pX + pY

pX = 0.2, pY = 0.45, pZ = 0.65

Hence, this statement is correct!

f) Z = X + Y

Let's check all the probabilities

when X = 1 and Y = 1, Z = 1

1 ≠ 1 + 1

when X = 0 and Y = 1, Z = 1

1 = 0 + 1

when X = 1 and Y = 0, Z = 1

1 = 1 + 0

when X = 0 and Y = 0, Z = 0

0 = 0 + 0

Hence, Z = X + Y (except when X = 1 and Y = 1)

This is because the success of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't.

8 0
3 years ago
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