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Serhud [2]
3 years ago
8

At the beginning of 2018, England Dresses has an inventory of $140,000. However, management wants to reduce the amount of invent

ory on hand to $80,000 at December 31. If net sales for 2018 are forecast at $400,000 and the gross profit rate is expected to be 40%, compute the cost of the merchandise which management should expect to purchase during 2018. (Hint: First compute the expected cost of goods sold.)
Business
1 answer:
Bad White [126]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

purchases = 160000

Explanation:

given data

beginning inventory = $140,000

amount of inventory on hand = $80,000

net sales = $400,000

gross profit rate = 40%

solution

we first Computation of cost of goods sold  hat is

Gross profit rate = \frac{gross profit}{net sales} × 100

= \frac{gross profit}{400000} = = \frac{40}{100}

= 100 Gross profit = 16000000

so

Gross profit = 160000

and

Cost of goods sold is = sales - gross profit

so

Cost of goods sold = 400000 - 160000

Cost of goods sold = 240000

and

Cost of goods sold = opening inventory + purchases - closing inventory  

so put here value

240000 = 140000 + purchases - 60000

so purchases = 160000

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3 years ago
Which of the following statements is most accurate? Select one: a. In process costing, estimating the degree of completion of un
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer: The correct answer is "c. The FIFO method computes equivalent units based only on production activity in the current period, ignoring the percentage of completion in beginning Work in Process inventory.".

Explanation: Process Costing is a special accounting method to identify and accumulate direct costs and prorate indirect costs of the same manufacturing process.

The statement "The FIFO method computes equivalent units based only on production activity in the current period, ignoring the percentage of completion in beginning Work in Process inventory." is the most accurate.

3 0
4 years ago
Markley Manufacturing calculated its predetermined overhead rate to be 120% of direct labor cost. During June, the company incur
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

Applied Manufacturing Overheads are $102,000

Overapplied Manufacturing overheads are $18,000

Explanation:

Under or over applied manufacturing overhead can be determined by comparing the actual and applied manufacturing overheads.

Applied overheads can be calculated by multiplying pre-determined overhead rate and actual level of quantity. Predetermined overhead rate is calculated using estimated overhead and estimated activity on which overheads are applied.

In this question the predetermined overhead rate is 120% of direct labor cost.

Applied overhead = Direct labor cost x 120% = $85,000 x 120% = $102,000

Actual overheads incurred = $84,000

Overapplied Manufacturing overheads = $102,000 - $84,000 = $18,000

3 0
3 years ago
Akira's uncle is about to open a car dealership. His property can accommodate a total inventory of 264 vehicles. The auto manufa
sesenic [268]

well, he has room for a total of 264 vehicles, he needs to have "five times as many cars as trucks", namely the cars : trucks ratio must be 5 to 1 or 5:1.

well, to change the total value to a ratio, we simply divide the total amount by the sum of the ratios, namely 264 ÷ (5+1), and distribute accordingly.

\bf \cfrac{cars}{trucks}\qquad 5:1\qquad \cfrac{5}{1}\qquad \qquad \cfrac{5\cdot \frac{264}{5+1}}{1\cdot \frac{264}{5+1}}\implies \cfrac{5\cdot 44}{1\cdot 44}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{cars}{220}}{\underset{trucks}{44}}

4 0
4 years ago
Filer Manufacturing has 8 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $74, and the book value per sha
GaryK [48]

Answer:

10.45%

Explanation:

First find the cost of equity for the company

RE = [$4.60*(1.05) / $74] + 0.05

RE = 0.1153, or 11.53%

Then find the YTM on both bond issues

P1 = $950 = $45*PVIFA(R%,48) + $1,000*PVIF(R%,48)

R = 4.767%

YTM = 4.767%×2

YTM = 9.53%

P2 = $1,080 = $50*PVIFA(R%,16) + $1,000*PVIF(R%,16)

R = 4.298%

YTM = 4.298%×2

YTM = 8.60%

Total Debt = 0.95($80,000,000) + 1.08*($60,000,000)

Total Debt = $140,800,000

Weight of D1 = 76,000,000 / 140,800,000

Weight of D1 = 0.5398

Weight of D2 = 64,800,000 / 140,800,000

Weight of D2 = 0.4602

Weighted Average after-tax cost of debt

RD = (1 – 0.35)*[(0.5398)*(0.0953) + (0.4602)(0.086)]

RD = .0592, or 5.92%

Market value of equity = 8,000,000*($74) = $592,000,000

Market value of debt = $140,800,000

Total market value of the company = $592,000,000 + 140,800,000 = $732,800,000

Weights of equity and debt

E/V = $592,000,000 / $732,800,000 = 0.8079

D/V = 1−E/V = 0.1921

WACC = 0.8079(0.1153) + 0.1921(0.0592)

WACC = 0.1045, or 10.45%

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3 years ago
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