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Dominik [7]
3 years ago
9

Efficiency-wage theory suggests that paying a. high wages might be profitable because they lower the efficiency of a firm’s work

ers. b. high wages might be profitable because they raise the efficiency of a firm’s workers. c. low wages might be profitable because they raise the efficiency of a firm’s workers. d. low wages might be profitable because they lower the efficiency of a firm’s workers.
Business
1 answer:
Greeley [361]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:  Option B                                    

     

Explanation: In simple words, efficiency theory states that direct monetary benefit is the best motivator for the worker and if the employer pays high wage then the worker will definitely work more efficiently.

It further states that higher wage will be covered by the extra benefit that the worker will provide with his or her performance.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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Jimmy, the marketing manager for an automobile manufacturer, observes frequent conflicts between two of his subordinates, Trent
Alina [70]

it is the person analysis

reason-

a person analysis is the analysis in whch we study the behaviour of the employees it helps us to identify the employees who lacks skills or need training.
8 0
2 years ago
Because an organization has limited influence on market growth rate, its main alternative for moving an SBU on the portfolio ana
svetlana [45]

Answer:

The correct answer is inject cash into it.

Explanation:

Every day, central banks lend money to private banks through auctions. The extraordinary thing about these new liquidity injections starring the European Central Bank or the US Federal Reserve is not so much the operation itself, as the situation in which they occur.

In this case, problems arise when, due to distrust, banks do not lend money to each other, operations that are common when the system is working properly.

With extraordinary placements, the central entities replace that lack of funds that private banks have not been able to obtain from their partners and, at the same time, at a cheaper price - at a lower interest rate.

6 0
3 years ago
A contractor purchased a dozer for $180,000 and anticipates using it for nine years. The salvage value of the dozer at the end o
ArbitrLikvidat [17]

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 1 is $163,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 2 is $146,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 3 is  $129,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 4 is  $112,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 5 is 95,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 6 is 78,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 7 is 61,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 8 is $44,000

The salvage value of the dozer at the end of year 9 is $27,000.

<h3>What is the book value of the dozer?</h3>

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

(180,000 - $27,000) / 9 = $17,000

Book value = cost of the asset - depreciation expense

  • Year 1 = $180,000 - $17,000 = $163,000
  • Year 2 = $163,000 - $17,000 = $146,000
  • Year 3 = $146,000   - $17,000 = $129,000
  • Year 4 =  $129,000 - $17,000 = $112,000
  • Year 5 =   $112,000 - $17,000 = 95,000
  • Year 6 = 95,000  - $17,000 = $78,000
  • Year 7 = $78,000 - $17,000 = $61,000
  • Year 8 =  $61,000  - $17,000 = $44,000
  • Year 9 =   $44,000- $17,000 = $27,000

To learn more about straight line depreciation, please check: brainly.com/question/6982430

5 0
2 years ago
Pacifica Industrial Products Corporation makes two products, Product H and Product L. Product H is expected to sell 39,000 units
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

Each product will be allocated with 38.30 dollars of manufacturing overhead as both takes 0.81 DLH

Explanation:

\frac{Cost\: Of \:Manufacturing \:Overhead}{Cost \:Driver}= Overhead \:Rate

To calcualte the overhead rate we need to distribute the expected cost over the expected cost driver, in this case, labor hours:

(39,000 + 8,000) x 0.81 DLH = 38,070 labor hous

$1,800,000 overhead / 38,070 DLH =  47,281323877

the overhead per hour is $47.28

overhead per product:

47,281323877 x 0.81 = 38,29787234 = <u><em>38.30</em></u>

4 0
3 years ago
The following transactions occur for Badger Biking Company during the month of June: a. Provide services to customers on account
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Assets =

Liabilities + Stockholder's equity

Accounts receivables $34,000(+)

Revenue $34,000(+)

Cash $26,000(+)

Accounts receivables $26,000(-)

Bike equipment $19,000(+) Notes payable $19,000(+)

Cash $3,400(-)

Retained earnings $3,400(-)

The first transaction increases asset(account receivable) by $34,000 while revenue(stockholder's equity) increased by the same amount

The cash receipt of $26,000 increases assets cash by $26,000 and decreases an asset , account receivable by the same amount

The purchase of an asset by note payable increases asset, bike equipment by $19,000 while liabilities note payable also increases by $19,000

The payment of utilities for $3,400 decreases asset cash by $3,400 while stockholder's equity retained earnings decreases by same amount.

7 0
3 years ago
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